The Bible's Tenses Are In A Timeless Context: God "Declaring The End From The Beginning" (Isaiah 46:10)

The Bible's Tenses Are in a Timeless Context: God "Declaring The End from The Beginning" (Isaiah 46:10)

Goodreads Author Eli kittim

"The Lamb that was slain from the creation of the world." (Rev. 13:8). Was Jesus slain before the world was even made?

"Children it is the last hour; ... even NOW many antichrists have arisen; from this we know that IT IS THE LAST HOUR." (1 John 2:18). Is John implying that 95 AD is the end of the world?

"In THESE LAST DAYS [God] has spoken to us in His Son." (Heb. 1:2). Is the author suggesting that the last days of the world happened during his life time?

"He [Jesus] … WAS revealed at the final point of time” (1 Pet. 1:20, New Jerusalem Bible, ). Is the final point of time in the past?

In the book of Revelation, in reference to a future event, John writes: “From the tribe of Judah, twelve thousand HAD BEEN sealed” (Rev. 7:5, New Jerusalem Bible). Is the future in the past? Surely, "had been" is past tense!

Thus, the Bible is written in a timeless context as though everything is happening now! It's speaking to all generations and to all periods of history. It isn't writing exclusively about past history as most people mistakenly believe!

Peter Paul Rubens (1577-1640), La descente de croix (Detail) Oil on canvas, 1617

νυνϊ δε απαξ επι ϲυντελεια των αιωνων ειϲ αθετηϲιν τηϲ αμαρτιαϲ δια τηϲ θυϲιαϲ αυτου πεφανερωται.“ (Hebrews 9:26, Codex Sinaiticus, Greek NT). Translation: "Once in the conclusion of the ages [in Greek the word αιωνων/‘ages’ means 'centuries’] has he been made manifest, to put away sin through the sacrifice of himself.” (Hebrews 9:26, Codex Sinaiticus). According to this verse, did Jesus come in the time of antiquity, or is he manifested to die for the sins of mankind in the conclusion of all the centuries? Either the Gospels are right and this verse is wrong, or this verse is right and the Gospels are wrong. Both can’t be right. You’d have to tear this page out of the Bible to believe in the current view. Or is the Bible contradicting itself? No, the Bible is without contradiction. Both are right. But how? Because the Gospels are only narrative renderings of a messianic prophecy that is given to us in the form of a theological story that we can all understand and then pass it down through the corridors of time to our posterity. Whereas the Epistles are direct messages, not stories, which are meant to expatiate on the teachings of Christ. That’s why there’s no mention of the magi, the nativity scene, the virgin birth, or Bethlehem in the Epistles. So which of the two categories (the Gospels or the Epistles) provide the most accurate time of Christ’s incarnation? You decide.

Eli of Kittim

This video is about St. Malachy and his prophecies. According to Eli of Kittim, all the prophecies concerning the coming apocalypse converge in the 2010 decade: the Mayan prophecy (their twenty-six-thousand-year calendar ended in 2012), Malachy's prophecy of the 112 Popes (according to experts, Pope Francis, who was inducted in 2013, is the 112th Pope), the Sikh prophecy (Sakhee 15th predicts the appearance of a God man in 2015), the Seventy-Week prophecy of Daniel (which foretells the date of Armageddon as occurring seventy years after the restoration of Israel, or in 2018), and many others!

Sounds like you've got the subject well in hand. What can I add? Your illustrations are really good." "You've mastered another world than I.

Robert Eisenman's review of my book, "The Little Book of Revelation: The First Coming of Jesus at the End of Days." “Robert Eisenman, one of the most eminent researchers of early Christianity working today,” is a distinguished biblical scholar and the author of “James the Brother of Jesus: The Key to Unlocking the Secrets of Early Christianity and the Dead Sea Scrolls.”

New literary evidence strongly suggests that the Gospels are not historical.