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Author of “The Little Book of Revelation.” Get your copy now!!https://www.xlibris.com/en/bookstore/bookdetails/597424-the-little-book-of-revelation
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How Credible Is The Evidence For The Historical Jesus?
How Credible is the Evidence for the Historical Jesus?
By Author Eli Kittim
I recently had a discussion with a Christian apologist who, in reaction to our conversation, posted on his blog a list of 9 sources outside the New Testament and a series of texts composed in subsequent centuries to prove the existence of Jesus.
He mentions Josephus, who is writing roughly 70 years after the purported events, and whose references to Jesus have been the source of much controversy in that they may have been subject to Christian redaction (interpolation/expansion/alteration). Incidentally, the scholarly consensus concerning the historicity of Jesus is largely influenced by the writings of Josephus. But Josephus was presumably familiar with some of the early gospels and other NT writings. So, why should his reference to John the Baptist be considered as constituting factual history? The same could be said about his references to Jesus!
Next, he mentions Phlegon who is writing in the second century about a rumored eclipse that allegedly occurred in 29 AD. Then he mentions a group of people like Suetonius, Thallus, Mara Bar Serapion, all of whose writings are considered ambiguous with regard to Jesus (we’re not sure if the references are to Christ or not), and which range from the late 1st to the 3rd century CE.
Some of these writings refer to Christian superstitions, such as the virginal conception of Christ, including those of Celsius (whom the blogger cites) who defends paganism and actually refers to Jesus as a person born to a Roman father. Celsius is not only writing 150 years later, but he’s also embellishing the story with anti-Christian sentiment.
Firstly, these are not independent eyewitness accounts. Secondly, some of these writers have obviously been influenced by the gospels—as is the case with Celsius who is probably drawing on Matthew and Tacitus who is presumably drawing on Luke—and, thirdly, they are writing approximately 70 to 200 years after the purported events.
In other cases, we are either dealing with explicit historical inaccuracies, or with authors who are known for sometimes embellishing a story with myth. For example, Josephus is also known for his expansion on the Moses story, as we find in the Midrash, making it difficult for us to ascertain what is real and what is mythical in some of his works. Take Justin Martyr, for example, whom the blogger cites. Writing in the second century, he proved to be historically inaccurate. In his “Apology” (1.31), for instance, he incorrectly claimed that Ptolemy, under whom the Septuagint had been translated, was a contemporary of Herod. Given his inattention to historical detail, how credible is his reference to the trial of Jesus? Not to mention his reference to the census under Quirinius, which did not exist, or at least not in the way that Luke describes it. So, he’s obviously drawing on the gospel of Luke, and he is, after all, a Christian apologist.
Despite all these discrepancies and historical inaccuracies, this Christian blogger nevertheless mentions all these figures and suggests that they provide indisputable truth for the historical existence of Jesus.
In the final analysis, the fact that Jesus is not mentioned anywhere outside the New Testament for about 70 years after his alleged death should certainly raise some red flags about his existence. It means that Jesus is missing from the historical record until the late first century AD. And the earliest New Testament texts do not mention anything about a historical Jesus, or about his birth or ministry, as we find in later developments (expansions).
And yet, despite the lack of historical evidence, Christ is still who he claims to be, to wit, the son of God! After reading this essay, you might understandably wonder how I can possibly make such a claim. How could I say that Jesus never existed and in the same breath claim to believe in him? Well, because if you study the New Testament you’ll find that Jesus was never meant to come in Antiquity, but rather at the end of the world (Luke 17:30; 1 Peter 1:5, 20; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-3; Hebrews 1:1-2; Hebrews 9:26; Revelation 12:1-5; etc.).
The historical Jesus is based more on mistaken assumptions about the evangelists’ intentions than careful interpretation of their writings. I’m arguing that the traditional Christian understanding of the theology of the gospels is fundamentally incorrect. We have confused apocalyptic literature with history, and turned prophecy into biography. It’s not just the evangelists’ theological problem in finding the literary means to get Jesus to Bethlehem so as to fulfill Micah’s prophecy, it’s ours as well since our “theological needs here create biographical ‘facts’" (W.D. Davies, and E.P. Sanders).
Even so, the gospels are still valid as they give us a theological outline of Christ’s life using stories that are filtered down from the Old Testament. So, in conclusion, the gospels are prophetic parables or apocalyptic stories that are to be believed (paradoxically) and handed down to posterity until the time of their fulfillment:
“Once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself. … After this the judgment" (Hebrews 9:26-27).
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Who is the First Horseman of the Apocalypse?
By Author Eli of Kittim
There are No Counterfeit Signs in the Bible
There are no counterfeit signs found anywhere in the Bible. So why should this be a precedent? That is, why would a white horse (a symbol of purity and righteousness) represent something as black as hell? Is God deceiving us? Is it possible that white is really black or that good is really evil in the Bible? Is the Bible inconsistent in its use of imagery and symbolism when referring to good or evil? The mainstream view—which holds that the first horseman of the Apocalypse represents the Antichrist—would have to reservedly admit that it’s possible, only because that is the logical conclusion of a counterfeit sign found in Scripture. I disagree. The Bible says “Woe to those who call evil good and good evil, who put darkness for light and light for darkness” (Isa. 5.20)! As a matter of fact, the white symbol of purity is consistent throughout the Bible. There are no counterfeit signs in Scripture. That’s why all references to God, Christ, or to the saints are always couched in white imagery. Here are some examples (italics mine):
Ecc. 9.8 - “Always be clothed in white, and always anoint your head with oil.”
Isa. 1.18 - “ ‘Come now, let us settle the matter,’ says the LORD. ‘Though your sins are like scarlet, they shall be as white as snow.’ “
Dan. 7.9 - “As I looked, thrones were set in place, and the Ancient of Days took his seat. His clothing was as white as snow; the hair of his head was white like wool.”
Mt. 17.2 - “There he was transfigured before them. His face shone like the sun, and his clothes became as white as the light.”
Mt. 28.3 - “His appearance was like lightning, and his clothes were white as snow.”
John 20.12 - “saw two angels in white, seated where Jesus' body had been.”
Acts 1.10 - “They were looking intently up into the sky as he was going, when suddenly two men dressed in white stood beside them.”
Rev. 1.14 - “The hair on his head was white like wool, as white as snow.”
Rev. 2.17 - “Whoever has ears, let them hear what the Spirit says to the churches. To the one who is victorious, I will give some of the hidden manna. I will also give that person a white stone with a new name written on it.”
Rev. 3.4 - “Yet you have a few people in Sardis who have not soiled their clothes. They will walk with me, dressed in white, for they are worthy.”
Rev. 3.5 - “The one who is victorious will, like them, be dressed in white.”
Rev. 3.18 - “I counsel you to buy from me gold refined in the fire, so you can become rich; and white clothes to wear.”
Rev. 4.4 - “Surrounding the throne were twenty-four other thrones, and seated on them were twenty-four elders. They were dressed in white and had crowns of gold on their heads.”
Rev. 6.2 - “I looked, and there before me was a white horse!”
Rev. 6.11 - “Then each of them was given a white robe, and they were told to wait a little longer.”
Rev. 7.9 - “After this I looked, and there before me was a great multitude that no one could count, from every nation, tribe, people and language, standing before the throne and before the Lamb. They were wearing white robes and were holding palm branches in their hands.”
Rev. 7.13 - “Then one of the elders asked me, ‘These in white robes—who are they, and where did they come from?’ “
Rev. 7.14 - “I answered, ‘Sir, you know.’ And he said, ‘These are they who have come out of the great tribulation; they have washed their robes and made them white in the blood of the Lamb.’ “
Rev. 14.14 - “I looked, and there before me was a white cloud, and seated on the cloud was one like a son of man.”
Rev. 19.11 - “I saw heaven standing open and there before me was a white horse, whose rider is called Faithful and True.”
Rev. 19.14 - “The armies of heaven were following him, riding on white horses and dressed in fine linen, white and clean.”
This is Irrefutable evidence, especially since Rev 19.11 explicitly says that the white horse represents Christ, and Rev. 19.14 claims that “the armies of heaven were following him, riding on white horses”. The Bible is seemingly designating what is considered to be good or pure through the nomenclature of symbols. Thus, from the perspective of Biblical symbolism, the white horseman cannot possibly represent the Antichrist.
Why is the White Horse of Rev. 6.2 the Only One Announced “in a voice like thunder”?
"I watched as the Lamb opened the first of the seven seals. Then I heard one of the four living creatures say in a voice like thunder, 'Come!'" (Rev. 6.1).
Notice that none of the other horses of the Apocalypse are announced “in a voice like thunder.” In 2 Samuel 22.14, we read: “The Lord thundered from heaven, and the Most High uttered His voice.” Rev. 4.5 describes what appear to be “peals of thunder” proceeding from the throne of God. In other words, the first horseman of Revelation 6.2 is the only one that seems to be announced by heaven itself, proceeding as it were out of the mouth of God.
The Diadem Versus the Stephanos Crown
In the Bible, the Diadem (Gk. diadema) represents the crown of a ruler, whereas the Stephanos is a wreath that symbolizes the crown of a champion or victor. Both Christ and Antichrist are said to wear diadems (diadema). Case in point: the so-called "Beast" (Antichrist) wears a diadema in Rev. 13.1. Similarly, in Rev. 12.3, the fiery red dragon has seven diadems (diadema) on his head to signify he is a ruler, just as Christ wears many crowns (diadema) in Rev. 19.12 because he is King of kings and Lord of lords. But Christ is also an overcomer, so he wears a stephanos crown as well! Stephanos “crowns” are typically worn by believers and victors in Christ. For example, in James 1.12, overcomers receive the stephanos crown of life. In 2 Tim. 4.8, overcomers who are victorious receive a stephanos crown of righteousness, just as in 1 Peter 5.4, God bestows on them the stephanos crown of glory. Similarly, in Rev. 2.10, victors in Christ are given a stephanos crown of life. This pattern is repeated in Rev 4.4 in which 24 elders are clothed in white robes having stephanos “crowns of gold on their heads.” In fact, the crown of thorns placed on Jesus’ head (Mt. 27.29) is also called a stephanos because of his victory over death that would follow. Moreover, those scholars who dismiss the idea that Christ wears a stephanos crown in the Bible can be directed to Rev. 14.14 wherein Christ is said to wear a golden stephanos crown. The Stephanos “crown” is therefore a symbol of victory for the believers in Christ. Accordingly, the Antichrist would not wear a stephanos crown.
What Does the Greek Word Νikao Mean in Rev. 6.2?
Καὶ εἶδον, καὶ ἰδοὺ, ἵππος λευκός, καὶ ὁ καθήμενος ἐπ’ αὐτὸν ἔχων τόξον; καὶ ἐδόθη αὐτῷ στέφανος, καὶ ἐξῆλθεν νικῶν, καὶ ἵνα νικήσῃ (Rev. 6.2).
Translation: “Immediately I saw a white horse appear, and its rider was holding a bow; he was given a victor’s crown and he went away, to go from victory to victory” (Rev. 6.2 NJB).
The words νικῶν and νικήσῃ that are used in Rev. 6.2 to refer to the actions of the rider of the white horse are based on the Greek word νικάω (nikaó, see Strong's G3528), which means to “overcome” or to be “victorious.” For example, Rev. 2.7 uses the same Greek word nikao (overcomes) when referring to the overcomers in Christ. Similarly, Rev. 2.11 says, “He who overcomes (nikao) shall not be hurt by the second death.” Furthermore, in Rev 2.17, he who overcomes (nikao) receives God’s hidden manna. This pattern is repeated over and over again. Rev. 2.26 similarly states, “And he who overcomes (nikao), and keeps My works until the end, I will give power over the nations” (see also Rev. 3.5, 12, 21). In Rev 5.5, Christ is worthy to open the scroll precisely because he “has prevailed” (nikao). For this reason, the word nikao, which is found in Rev 6.2, can only refer to an overcomer in Christ and cannot possibly be attributed to an Antichrist figure. What’s more, when Rev. 5.5 says that “the Lion . . . has overcome so as to open the book and its seven seals,” it is metaphorically referring to Christ initiating the final events on earth.
Conclusion
There are no counterfeit signs found anywhere in the Bible. That’s why all references to God, Christ, or to the saints are always couched in white imagery. What is more, the white horse of Rev. 6.2 is the only one that is announced “in a voice like thunder,” signifying that it is sanctioned by the Most High God. We have also seen that the stephanos “crown,” which is mentioned in Rev. 6.2 in reference to the white horseman, is a consistent symbol of victory in the Bible for the believers in Christ. Biblical studies of the Greek word nikao, which is found in Rev 6.2, have produced similar results, indicating that this word can only refer to an overcomer in Christ and cannot possibly be attributed to an Antichrist figure. Moreover, there are no hints given to suggest that the white horseman is a nefarious figure. For example, Revelation 6.8—in discussing the upcoming, end times wars and famines—makes no mention of the white horse at all, but begins rather with the second horse, the Red Horse: “And they were given authority over a fourth of the earth, to kill with sword and with famine and with pestilence and by wild beasts of the earth” (Rev. 6.8). Notice that the white horse is never mentioned in the aforesaid sequence. The war commences with the second horse (The Red Horse, which I believe represents the Antichrist): “And they were given authority over a fourth of the earth, to kill with sword [2nd horse/red horse: ‘and a great sword was given to him’ Rev. 6.4] and with famine [3rd horse/black horse] and with pestilence [4th horse/ashen horse] and by wild beasts of the earth.” The biblical term "victory" (nikao) is intimately associated with Christ's resurrection from the dead, which ultimately results in the conquering of death itself (see 1 Cor. 15.54, 57), while the metaphor of the bow represents God's covenant with the human race (see Gen. 9.13). Further evidence that the word “toxon” (bow) in Rev. 6.2 can mean “rainbow” comes from the Septuagint (LXX), an early Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible, which translates “rainbow” as “toxon” (bow) in Genesis 9.13! Accordingly, this brief study would strongly suggest that the white horseman is not the Antichrist, but Jesus Christ (cf. the white horseman in Rev. 19.11)! This constitutes further proof that Jesus is the first person to be revealed in the last days, who commences the sequence of end time events.
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TRANSLATION AND EXEGESIS OF BIBLICAL GREEK
Eli Kittim
Ἡ μετάφρασις τῶν Ἑβδομήκοντα (Septuagint)
In the Septuagint’s version of Isa. 33.10, YHWH uses the Greek word *ἀναστήσομαι* (a derivative of the term *ἀνίστημι*, which means to ‘make to stand up’ or to ‘raise up’, but often meaning to ‘rise from the dead’) as a reference to His personal *resurrection*, which is then followed by His ascension (ὑψωθήσομαι) and exaltation (δοξασθήσομαι)
νῦν ἀναστήσομαι λέγει κύριος νῦν δοξασθήσομαι νῦν ὑψωθήσομαι (Isa. 33.10 LXX)
Translation
Now I will arise, says the Lord, now I will lift myself up; now I will be exalted (NRSV)
Compare the Greek terms *ἀναστῇ* (Isa. 2.19 LXX), *ἀναστήσεται* (Dan. 12.1 LXX), and *ἀναστήσονται* (Dan. 12.2 LXX), all of which refer to an eschatological *resurrection* from the dead!
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Spiritual masters of the Eastern Orthodox Church mysticalhesychast tradition
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Isaiah 9:6 Weighs Whether the Messiah is God (Christian Position) or a Mere Mortal (Judaic View)
By Author Eli of Kittim
I will present three examples from Isaiah Chapter 9 and verse 6 (which illustrate the Messiah’s Divinity) to demonstrate that the Hebrew text is not referring to a person of mere human origin, as Judaism suggests.
Let me introduce the first point of my argument. In Isaiah Chapter 9 and verse 6, the Hebrew word פֶלֶא “pele” (Strong’s H6382) is derived from the term “pala’,” which means “a miracle”– a marvellous wonder; as in the phrase “signs and wonders" (cf. Exod 15:11; Psalm 77:11, 14; Psalm 78:12; Psalm 88:10). Therefore, the standard English translation of the Hebrew term פֶלֶא “pele” as merely “wonderful” (in Isaiah 9:6) is not entirely accurate or adequate because it fails to address the nuances of this expression, which suggest that this child is associated with miracles and wonders! In other words, the term “pele” (Hb. פֶלֶא “Wonder”) implies that this is no ordinary child (not your typical human being), thereby suggesting the possibility of his divine or supernatural origin.
Secondly, Isaiah 9:6 says that this “son” (Hb. בֵּ֚ן “ben”; Strong’s H1121 i.e., “messianic child”) is called “mighty” (Hb. גִּבּוֹר “gibbor” Strong’s H1368) “God” (Hb. אֵ֣ל “el” Strong’s H410). The attribution of the phrase “mighty God” to the Messiah confirms the previous allusion regarding his ability to work wonders while admitting of no doubt or misunderstanding that this appellation of Messiah implies he is indeed God incarnate!
Thirdly, in Isaiah 9:6, the Messiah is called “the Prince” (Hb. שַׂר־ “sar” Strong’s H8269), “the everlasting” (Hb. עַד “ad” derived from “adah,” which means “perpetuity,” “continually,” or “eternally” Strong’s H5703). In other words, this “son” that “is given” to us as a gift (Hb. נִתַּן־ “nit·tān” Strong’s H5414) is from everlasting! As a supplemental observation, compare Micah 5:2 regarding the Messiah, “whose origin is from of old, from ancient days.”
Similarly, in Daniel 7:14 it is said that the Messiah’s kingdom is “everlasting” (Hb. עָלַם֙ “alam” Strong’s H5957), thus presumably reinforcing the notion that the Messiah (Hb. בַּר אֱנָשׁ “bar enash” i.e., “son of man” Dan 7:13) is himself everlasting. That’s why Isaiah 2:19 and Zephaniah 1:7 seemingly refer to the Messiah as “Lord” (Hb. יְהוָה֙ “Yhvh”), and why Zechariah 12:10 suggests that God (Hb. אֵלַ֖י “El”) himself is looked upon by those who pierce him, followed by a world-wide mourning in the last days.
No wonder John 1:1-2 tells us categorically that the “Word” (Gk. Λόγος “Logos” i.e., Christ) is God:
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God.”
The author of Colossians contributes to this discussion by stating that Christ (i.e., “Messiah” or the Anointed One) “is the image of the invisible God” (1:15).
This is precisely why the great messianic prince named Michael is likened to God in Daniel 12:1 (Hb. מִיכָאֵל “Mikael” i.e., “Who is like God?” Strong’s H4317), and why the name of the messianic child in Isaiah 7:14 is “Immanuel” (עִמָּנוּאֵל i.e., God is with us).
Conclusion
Isaiah 9:6 in the original Hebrew text paints a divine picture of the Messiah, unlike the one erroniously drawn by traditional Judaism of a mere human being!
What did Moses Mean when he Said that God will Raise Up a Prophet Like Me? Was he Referring to Muhammad or to Someone Else?
By Author Eli Kittim 🎓
Deuteronomy 18.15 foretold the coming of a notable prophet after the manner of Moses whose words would command everyone’s attention. Here, we must use the principle of "double-fulfillment" in the interpretation of Bible prophecy. The first fulfillment of the prophecy refers to Joshua, who was to succeed Moses as leader. However, the second fulfillment of the prophecy refers to the prophetic line that would follow, ultimately culminating in Jesus Christ, the Messiah (see Acts 3.20-21), as this Torahic prophecy was then carried forward into the New Testament and recorded in the Book of Acts:
“Moses said, ‘The Lord your God will raise up for you from your own people a prophet like me. You must listen to whatever he tells you. And it will be that everyone who does not listen to that prophet will be utterly rooted out from the people’” (3.22—23; cf. 7.37).
The Greek text is as follows:
Μωϋσῆς μὲν εἶπεν ὅτι
προφήτην ὑμῖν ἀναστήσει κύριος ὁ θεὸς
ὑμῶν ἐκ τῶν ἀδελφῶν ὑμῶν ὡς ἐμέ· αὐτοῦ ἀκούσεσθε κατὰ πάντα ὅσα ἂν
λαλήσῃ πρὸς ὑμᾶς.
ἔσται δὲ πᾶσα ψυχὴ ἥτις ἐὰν μὴ ἀκούσῃ τοῦ προφήτου ἐκείνου
ἐξολεθρευθήσεται ἐκ τοῦ λαοῦ.
The key word, here, is ἀναστήσει (“raise up”). The Greek word ἀναστήσει is derived from the verb ἀνίστημι, which means to “raise up” or to “raise from the dead” (see G. W. H. Lampe [ed.], A Patristic Greek Lexicon [Oxford: Oxford University, 1961], pp. 145—46). The term ἀναστήσει—just like its cognates ἀναστήσεται and ἀναστήσονται—seemingly refers to a resurrection from the dead (see e.g. Mk 9.31; Lk. 18.33; Jn 11.23—24; 1 Thess. 4.16).
In Deuteronomy 18.15, the Hebrew term is קוּמ֖ (qum). The word qum means to “stand up” or to “raise up,” but all too often it means to “rise from the dead” (e.g. Isa. 26.19; Mk 5.39—42). Since the Septuagint (LXX) translates it as ἀναστήσει, it is reasonable to assume that Luke, the author of Acts, is drawing his inspiration from the LXX.
Notice also that Acts 10.41 uses a cognate of the word ἀναστήσει (Acts 3.22), namely, ἀναστῆναι to refer to a resurrection from the dead (cf. Acts 17.3; Mk 9.10; Lk. 24.46; Jn 20.9). Interestingly enough, the New Testament uses yet another resurrection theme (ἐκ νεκρῶν ἀναστῇ) and a cognate of the word ἀναστήσει in reference to the teachings of Moses: “‘If they do not listen to Moses and the prophets, neither will they be convinced even if someone rises from the dead’” (Lk. 16.31). What is more, the phrase “raise up” (Acts 3.22) in connection with Moses’ reference to a future great prophet is also used in Acts 5.30 to denote Jesus’ resurrection: “‘The God of our ancestors raised up Jesus, whom you had killed by hanging him on a tree.’”
Conclusion
Based on translation and exegesis of Greek and Hebrew, Moses’ prophecy that “God will raise up [ἀναστήσει; qum] … a prophet like me” gives us a criterion by which its fulfillment may be judged. In other words, by this sign everyone will know that the notable prophet has indeed come. And what is this sign? It is simply this: the great prophet like unto Moses will be raised from the dead! In using this criterion of resurrection, we’ll be able to identify whether he is a true or false prophet.
Accordingly, Muhammad cannot lay claim to Moses’ prophecy, given that he has not been brought back from the grave. There can only be one person who fits the bill of the great prophet predicted by Moses in Deuteronomy 18.15 (Acts 3.19–23): Jesus Christ!
After all, Jesus Christ himself says that Moses “wrote about Me” (John 5.46)!