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Three Questions On the Rapture: Is it Pre-Trib or Post-Trib? Is it Secret or Not? And is it Imminent?

By Goodreads Author Eli Kittim

——-

Is the Rapture Visible or Invisible?

Although there are a few early references to the “rapture” in certain Christian works——such as the late 6th century “Apocalypse of Pseudo-Ephraem”——the putative “secret rapture” and the “futurist eschatological view” of prophecy were largely developed by Cardinal Robert Bellarmine (1542-1621) and Jesuit theologian Francisco Ribera (1537-1591) during the Counter-Reformation, and were later co-opted by the 19th century Bible teacher, John Nelson Darby. In modern times, author Hal Lindsey popularized this view in his best-selling 1970 book, “The Late, Great Planet Earth.”

Given that 1 Cor. 15.51-52 (NRSV) says that “we will all be changed, in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye,” this New Testament (NT) passage is adduced by Bible prophecy scholars to explain that “the body of Christ” (i.e. “the church”) will suddenly vanish and disappear. Recently, both Dr. Ed Hindson and pastor Mark Hitchcock also used 1 Cor. 15.51-52 to support a secret and instant rapture in which the faithful “in Christ" will evanesce. In fact, in their book “Can we still believe in the Rapture?” they aver that even Jesus will not be visibly seen except *only* by the faithful. Despite the fact that these authors have a penchant for rigorous scholarship, since they tout themselves as Bible prophecy pundits, they have nevertheless prescinded numerous contradictory passages. Rev. 1.7 is a case in point: “He [Jesus] is coming with the clouds; every eye will see him.” Similarly, Mt. 24.30 says: “they will see ‘the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven' with power and great glory.” In fact, the coming of the Son of Man is likened to lightning, which “comes from the east and flashes as far as the west” (Mt. 24.27). Therefore, there will clearly be a visible and physical manifestation of Jesus’ coming in the sky! After which “he will send out his angels . . . and they will gather his elect” (Mt. 24.31).

Another reason why the rapture is reputed to be a *secret* is because 2 Pet. 3.10 says that “the day of the Lord will come like a thief.” However, notice that “the heavens will pass away with a loud noise, and the elements will be dissolved with fire.” This verse evinces that “a loud noise” will be heard and that the physical properties of the earth will be destroyed in a great conflagration. Thus, the key components of this experience unambiguously comprise audible, visible, and physical phenomena.

A further reason for the supposed “secret rapture” has to do with the postmortem changes in the human body that are said to make it imperishable and immortal (1 Cor. 15.53). But just because “the dead will be raised imperishable, and we will be changed” (1 Cor. 15.52), doesn’t mean that the *rapture* is inaudible or invisible. Even if Paul is talking about an eminently spiritualized body doesn’t mean that it cannot be seen. For instance, Jesus is depicted as being both visible and physical after his purported resurrection. By way of illustration, the disciples allegedly “ate and drank with him after he rose from the dead” (Acts 10.41), and he was also said to be physically touched by Thomas (Jn 20.27).

What is more, all the Biblical evidence contradicts the notion that the rapture will be visible only to a select few. For example, similar to Jesus’ loud, audible shout during the rapture in 1 Thess. 4.16, Jer. 25.30 also prophesies that “The Lord will roar from on high . . . and shout” when he appears. This is a running theme throughout the Bible. It’s reminiscent of Psalm 50.3: “Our God comes and does not keep silence.” Thus, the most viable interpretation of these verses must of necessity render the grounds for the “secret rapture” untenable!

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Is the Rapture Imminent?

Before we discuss the *timing* of the rapture, it is important to consider whether or not it is imminent. John A. Sproule, a pretribulationist author, once said that "imminence" is defined as the belief that "Christ can return for His Church ‘at any moment’ and that no predicted event will intervene before that return.” However, this is a moot point since 2 Thess. 2.1-3 teaches against the doctrine of imminence and stresses that the rapture cannot take place “unless the rebellion comes first and the lawless one is revealed.” Second Thessalonians 2.1 is using rapture language (Gk. ἐπισυναγωγῆς ἐπ αὐτόν; “gathered together to him”). Matthew 24.31 uses the exact same word (ἐπισυνάγω) in reference to the rapture! Moreover, there’s a further condition that has to be met before the rapture can take place, and before the “lawless one” (i.e. the Antichrist) can be revealed, namely, someone needs to be removed from the earth.

A common misinterpretation is that this must either be a reference to the *Holy Spirit* or to the *church*, which will be taken out of the way before the Antichrist can be revealed. But if it is the Holy Spirit or the church it would directly contradict the Book of Revelation (7.13-14), which foresees a great spiritual revival during the time of the Great Tribulation (GT). For instance, John the Revelator sees “a great multitude that” came “out of the great ordeal [GT]” (Rev. 7.9, 14). This multitude represents the “church” of Christ, which is obviously present, not absent, during the GT. And without the Holy Spirit no one can be saved (Rom. 8.9b). Therefore, the so-called “restrainer” of 2 Thess. 2.6-7 can neither be the Holy Spirit nor the church. This mysterious figure can only be explained by my unique eschatological view. Since I hold that the first horseman of the Apocalypse is Christ (the white horseman), it is he and he alone who is the restrainer, and after he is slain the Antichrist will be revealed (see my article: https://www.google.com/amp/s/eli-kittim.tumblr.com/post/168159235542/who-is-the-first-horseman-of-the-apocalypse/amp).

Eli of Kittim

WHO IS THE FIRST HORSEMAN OF THE APOCALYPSE?

By Eli of Kittim THERE ARE NO COUNTERFEIT SIGNS IN THE BIBLE There are no counterfeit signs found anywhere in the Bible. So why should

Another reason why the “restrainer” cannot be the “church” is because if 2 Thess. 2.1-3 says that the *rapture-of-the-church* cannot occur “unless . . . the lawless one is revealed” first, the text would be contradicting itself later by saying the exact opposite, namely, that the lawless one cannot be revealed unless the *church* (2 Thess. 2.6-7) is removed first. Furthermore, in koine Greek, the church is never referred to as a man, using the nominative masculine singular form of the definite article (Gk. ὁ “ho” 2 Thess. 2.7). It cannot be the Holy Spirit either because if it were to be removed from the earth no one would be saved, thereby contradicting Rev. 7.9-14, among other passages.

So, the only legitimate candidate for the “restrainer” position, in 2 Thess 2, is Christ, who will be taken out of the way (slain; cf. Heb. 9.26b) and then the Antichrist will be revealed! Hence, according to Scripture, the *rapture* cannot possibly be imminent precisely because three significant events must first occur: the rebellion, the removal of the restrainer, and the revelation of the lawless one!

——-

Common Misconceptions

Now we are ready to tackle the actual *timing* of the “rapture” with respect to the GT. But before we do, let us first consider why people hold to a Pre-Tribulation (Pre-Trib) as opposed to a Post-Tribulation (Post-Trib) rapture position.

Before we get started, I need to stress that the second category, the so-called “Mid-Tribulation” (MId-Trib) rapture view, does not really exist. It’s a misnomer. The GT only lasts for 3 and a half years, or 42 months, or 1,260 days, or a time, and times, and half a time (cf. Rev. 11.2; 12.6, 14; 13.5). Thus, there can only be two possible timelines: a Pre-Trib or a Post-Trib timetable. The 7 years (“one week”) alluded to in Dan. 9.27 do not refer to the duration of the GT. Only the phrase “for half of the week” represents the GT. A Mid-Trib position would only be feasible if the rapture occurred in the middle of a supposed 7-year GT period. But since the GT lasts only for 3 and a half years, there can be no such thing as a Mid-Trib view! The “prewrath” position is also problematic because if the Day of the Lord begins during the last half of the GT period, then the Antichrist will not actually reign for 3 and a half years (Dan. 12.7; Rev. 11.2; 12.6; 13.5), thereby contradicting scripture. Not to mention that the GT represents Satan’s wrath (Dan. 7.25; Rev. 12.12; 13.5), not God’s wrath (aka “The Day of the Lord”: Joel 2.31; Acts 2.20), which will follow the 3-and-a-half-year GT period and will last for some time.

Another common misconception is to assume that the phrase “elect” in the NT is exclusively referring to the Jews, not to the church-in-Christ that is made up of all peoples. However, in Mt. 24.31, 40-41 the clause “they will gather his elect” is a direct reference to the church-in-Christ. In fact, in the NT, the term “elect” never refers to the Jews. For example, Rom. 11.7 shows the dichotomy between the elect and the Jews. Moreover, the letter (Col. 3.12) addressed to Christians at the church of Colossae, Asia Minor, uses the term “elect” (KJV/ERV/ASV) to refer to those “chosen” in Christ. Another clear differentiation between “the elect” and the Jews is found in Rom. 11.7. And Rom. 8.32-34 reinforces the doctrine that “God's elect” are those for whom Christ died to justify! The prophetic caveat in Mt. 24.24 (NRSV) makes it absolutely clear that the term “elect” is a sole reference to the body of Christ:

For false messiahs and false prophets will

appear and produce great signs and

omens, to lead astray, if possible, even the

elect.

Finally, let me say a few words about those who deny the rapture. Just because it is a relatively late teaching in the history of the church doesn’t make it false. Due to a renewed interest in the Bible during the enlightenment period, the disciplines of Biblical Criticism, Textual Criticism, and Biblical Eschatology were greatly enhanced. As a result, we know more about the Bible today than we ever did. Furthermore, just as there are clear indications of a future resurrection of the dead in both the Old and New Testaments (e.g. Dan. 12.1-2; 1 Cor. 15.22-23, 51-55), there are also clear indications of a future rapture immediately after the resurrection of the dead. First Thessalonians 4.16-17 reads:

For the Lord himself, with a cry of

command, with the archangel's call and

with the sound of God's trumpet, will

descend from heaven, and the dead in

Christ will rise first. Then we who are alive,

who are left, will be caught up in the clouds

together with them to meet the Lord in the

air; and so we will be with the Lord forever.

Accordingly, the rapture will occur immediately after the resurrection of the dead, when the body of Christ will be transformed from mortality into immortality, unable to die again (cf. 1 Cor. 15.51-55)!

——-

What is the Supposed Evidence for a Pre-Trib Rapture?

Now that we addressed some of the most common misconceptions about the rapture, we can get down to business. Pre-Trib scholars usually point to 1 Thess. 5.9, which says: “For God has destined us not for wrath [ὀργὴν] but for obtaining salvation,” and they interpret this verse to mean that the church will not experience “the wrath of God” (cf. Rev. 16.1). And they’ll usually say something to the effect that “God wouldn’t beat up his bride before marrying her.” They feel that the church *deserves* special privileges and therefore God is *obligated*, according to his word, to guarantee its safe passage from the coming disaster.

However, the GT is NOT God’s wrath; it’s Satan’s wrath! Accordingly, Rev. 12.12 reads:

But woe to the earth and the sea, for the

devil has come down to you with great

wrath, because he knows that his time is

short!

What is more, there never was a time when the church was immune from crisis and persecution. Quite the contrary. Throughout its history, the church has always experienced various forms of persecution. According to the martyrdom accounts, a glance into the life of Paul, or that of the apostles, will quickly prove this point. Scripture doesn’t say that God promises an escape from the tribulation. Quite the opposite. It says: “Through many tribulations we must enter the kingdom of God” (Acts 14.22 NASB). So it isn’t as if there are a precious few who are deemed worthy to escape. This theology of entitlement is certainly unscriptural and, therefore, unwarranted and without merit.

Another popular verse that’s often cited as evidence for a pre-trib rapture is Rev. 3.10 (KJV):

Because thou hast kept the word of my

patience, I also will keep thee from the hour

of temptation, which shall come upon all the

world, to try them that dwell upon the earth.

However, the preposition ἐκ (which is usually translated as “from” or “from out of”) has several other meanings, such as “of,” “through,” “by,” and so the verse could equally imply that God promises “to watch over” or “to guard” (Gk. ἐτήρησας) the believers *through* the hour of temptation (πειρασμός) that is coming upon the whole world: (see https://biblehub.com/greek/1537.htm). Therefore, according to this verse, it’s not entirely clear whether the faithful are removed from the earth or whether they go *through* “the hour of temptation” with God’s protection. It’s not even clear whether the verse is referring to the GT because that event is typically described as θλῖψις μεγάλη (Mt. 24.21) or ἡμέρα θλίψεως (Dan. 12.1 LXX), not as πειρασμός (Rev. 3.10).

——-

The Case for a Post-Trib Rapture

So, where is the evidence for a Post-Trib rapture, and is it conclusive? We’ve already discussed 2 Thess. 2.1-7 and concluded that this text predicts a sequence of eschatological events in which the “Antichrist” will be revealed PRIOR to the timing of the rapture. As we said earlier, 2 Thess. 2.1-3 is teaching against the doctrine of imminence and stresses that the rapture cannot take place “unless the rebellion comes first and the lawless one is revealed.” We also said that 2 Thess. 2.1 is employing rapture-language (Gk. ἐπισυναγωγῆς ἐπ αὐτόν; “gathered together to him”). And there’s a further stipulation that has to be met before the rapture can occur, and before the “lawless one” can be revealed, to wit, someone must be removed from the earth. Since the Antichrist will obviously be revealed at the beginning of the GT period (cf. Mt. 24.15-21; 2 Thess. 2.3-4) there can’t possibly be a pretrib rapture!

Similar to 2 Thess. 2.3-4 ff., Mt. 24.21 says that the GT (Gk. θλῖψις μεγάλη) will begin “when you see the desolating sacrilege standing in the holy place” (Mt. 24.15). Apparently, this is the time period when the GT commences. Then, Mt. 24.29-31 goes on to say that the “gathering” of the Son of Man’s elect (i.e. ‘the rapture’) occurs AFTER the GT (Gk. *μετὰ* τὴν θλῖψιν τῶν ἡμερῶν ἐκείνων):

Immediately after the suffering of those

days the sun will be darkened, and the

moon will not give its light; the stars will fall

from heaven, and the powers of heaven will

be shaken. Then the sign of the Son of Man

will appear in heaven, and then all the

tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will

see ‘the Son of Man coming on the clouds

of heaven’ with power and great glory. And

he will send out his angels with a loud

trumpet call, and they will gather his elect

from the four winds, from one end of

heaven to the other.

Make no mistake. Matthew 24.40-41 reinforces the previous thematic material——to ensure that it’s understood as a reference to the *rapture*——by adding additional details:

Then two will be in the field; one will be

taken and one will be left. Two women will

be grinding meal together; one will be taken

and one will be left.

The original Greek text of Matthew 24.31 uses the exact same rapture-language (ἐπισυνάξουσιν “gather together”) which 2 Thessalonians 2.1 uses (ἐπισυναγωγῆς “gathered together to him”). In Matthew 24.31, the phrase “gather together” (his elect) is a translation of the Greek term ἐπισυνάξουσιν, which comes from ἐπισυνάγω (“to gather together,” “to collect,” “to assemble”). Matthew 24.31 makes it abundantly clear that Jesus will *gather together* “His elect from the four winds, from one end of the sky to the other.” Once again, according to the 24th chapter and the 29th verse of the Matthean text, the *rapture* will transpire “immediately AFTER the suffering [i.e. GT] of those days” (emphasis added). Thus, the Post-Trib interpretation of Mt. 24 is incontestable! But there’s more.

The clincher, the passage that settles the matter conclusively is Rev. 20.4-6. This passage tells us that those who were killed during the GT took part in the first resurrection. However, given that the rapture is contemporaneous with the first resurrection (1 Thess. 4.16-17), and since those who took part in the first resurrection came out of the GT, it means that the rapture must also take place *after* the GT! Rev. 20.4-6 reads:

Then I saw thrones, and those seated on

them were given authority to judge. I also

saw the souls of those who had been

beheaded for their testimony to Jesus and

for the word of God. They had not

worshiped the beast or its image and had

not received its mark on their foreheads or

their hands. They came to life and reigned

with Christ a thousand years. (The rest of

the dead did not come to life until the

thousand years were ended.) This is the

first resurrection. Blessed and holy are

those who share in the first resurrection.

Hence, if this is the first resurrection that takes place AFTER the GT, then there can’t possibly be an earlier one, as the Pre-Trib doctrine assumes. Remember that we are not speculating here. We are using an important hermeneutical principle of exegesis, called, “the analogy of Scripture.” It means that Scripture should interpret Scripture. Therefore, our exegesis is not only sound but is also within the larger *canonical context* or theology of Scripture. That is to say, we’re not employing an isolated, out-of-context verse but rather a running theme that covers many books of the Bible. The chronological parallels of all these timelines regarding the rapture directly contradict the Pre-Trib theory. And although, admittedly, it would be far more comforting to adhere to the Pre-Trib rapture doctrine, it would be equally deceptive and fallacious since it does not agree with, and is unauthorized by, Scripture.

——-

Further Evidence of a Post-Trib Rapture: The Last Trumpet

But there is further evidence of a Post-Trib rapture based on certain parallel phrases and verbal agreements. There’s a common trumpet-motif that runs across the following passages. Notice, for example, 1 Thess. 4.16, which says that Christ will appear for the rapture “with the sound of God's trumpet.” We find the exact same theme in Mt. 24.31 in which the Son of Man “will send out his angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds.” Similarly, 1 Cor. 15.51-52 explicitly states that the resurrection of the dead will take place “at the last trumpet.” So, when is the last trumpet? According to Rev. 11.15, the last (or 7th) trumpet is blown during the time period when the Lord’s Messiah begins to reign over the entire world, so it is obviously a period that takes place AFTER the GT:

Then the seventh angel blew his trumpet,

and there were loud voices in heaven,

saying, ‘The kingdom of the world has

become the kingdom of our Lord and of his

Messiah, and he will reign forever and ever.’

Therefore, the last trumpet is yet another clue of the chronological timetable of the rapture in that it follows, rather than precedes, the GT.

——-

Is the Church Mentioned After Rev. 4.1?

There are those who teach that the rapture of the church is implied in Rev. 4.1, and they further assert that since the church is not mentioned after that in the rest of the Book, and given that the tribulation *is* subsequently mentioned, this would strongly suggest a Pre-Trib rapture. However, given that Rev. 4.1 is specifically referring to John and no one else, it’s not entirely clear whether or not the rapture is implied. Moreover, there’s something amiss about the Pre-Trib interpretation because the church is actually mentioned numerous times after Rev. 4.1. The church is mentioned in Rev. 5.8-10 by way of the 24 elders, which seemingly represent a remnant of the redeemed tribulation saints who meet in council before the throne of God in preparation for the coming judgment of the world! Mention is also made of the Jewish remnant of 144,000 saints in Rev. 7.4. There’s also the “great multitude that no one could count” (Rev. 7.9), which are actually tribulation saints “who have come out of the great ordeal” (Rev. 7.14). The 2 witnesses of Rev. 11 also represent the church, as does the woman of Rev. 12. Not to mention that the “Beast” persecutes the church in Rev. 13, while the Bride of Christ (the church) is referenced once again in Rev. 19.7, even though the rapture presumably hasn’t happened yet. As you can see, the “church” is mentioned many times. These findings would render the Pre-Trib conclusion untenable!

——-

Conclusion

Why would Jesus instruct the church in Mt. 24.23-27 ff. on how to conduct itself during the GT if it had already left the earth? It wouldn’t make any sense. So, no matter how you look at it, it’s abundantly clear from the many proof-texts that we’ve encountered that the *rapture* at the end (or towards the end [Mt. 24.22]) of the GT period represents the soundest position! As far as I’m concerned, the Pre-Trib position has been thoroughly debunked! It is completely bogus and misinformed.

It’s important to know the sequence of eschatological events so that the community of faith can be better equipped and prepared for the GT! And although it is not a salvation issue, Scripture warns that during the GT “false messiahs and false prophets will appear and produce great signs and omens, to lead astray, if possible, even the elect” (Mt. 24.24). If that’s the case, then this means that the *elect* are here on earth during the time of the GT:

Keep awake therefore, for you do not know

on what day your Lord is coming (Mt.

24.42).

The point is to be ready! Because once the rapture takes place the doors of heaven will be shut. There will be no more opportunities for salvation!

A Response to Brendan Stupik’s John Calvin and The Authorship of Evil

By Bible Researcher & Author Eli Kittim 🎓

Mr. Brendan Stupik is a writer, a Reformed Calvinist, and a musician. As far as I can tell, he has no degrees in higher education, not even a bachelors degree, no published books or articles, and no formal Biblical training in an academic or seminary setting. Yet he excoriated me after reading one of my articles “Does God Create Evil?: Answering the Calvinists” in which I conclude that under Calvinism, God creates evil. He publicly criticized and rebuked me sharply and promised to formally refute my views on his blog, apologeticsrepo.wordpress.com, which he did with his article “John Calvin and The Authorship of Evil: A Critique and Review of Eli Kittim’s Answering the Calvinists.” I heartily disagree with Mr. Stupik on many issues relating to Calvinism, but I will nevertheless try to take his views seriously.

Stupik (no pun intended) has written a scathing review of “Does God Create Evil?: Answering the Calvinists” on his Wordpress Blog. In his essay, he’s trying to portray my thesis as “a weak argument” because he claims that “no textual evidence is cited to support” my interpretation. What is more, he accuses me of “attacking a straw man.” That is, he assumes that I create an imaginary Calvinist that is cut out of whole cloth, and then I proceed “to ‘refute’ this imaginary Calvinist.” He, therefore, concludes that mine is not a “sound refutation of Calvinism.” These attacks are sustained throughout his post, and they sometimes become personal. So, to put this matter to rest, I will present a great deal of evidence, especially from Calvin’s own works.

Stupik begins his criticism by taking aim at my credentials, trying to paint a false picture of me as one who lacks writing skills, who mishandles quotations, and whose competence in literary matters must be doubtful. And yet, for those of you who don’t know me, I’m a Bible Scholar and a graduate of the Koinonia (Bible) Institute as well as the John W. Rawlings School of Divinity. I’m a native Greek speaker, fluent in Koine Greek, and I read the New Testament in the original language. I also hold a masters degree in psychology. I’ve been writing and publishing articles for over 40 years. I have published articles in numerous prestigious journals and magazines, such as the "Journal of Higher Criticism," "The American Journal of Psychoanalysis," the "Aegean Review" (which has published work by Jorge Luis Borges, Lawrence Durrell, Truman Capote, Alice Bloom), and the "International Poetry Review" (a literary translation journal), among others. I’m also an award-winning book author of “The Little Book of Revelation: The First Coming of Jesus at the End of Days.” Not to mention the hundreds of articles that have been posted on my blog in the past decade: https://eli-kittim.tumblr.com/

eli-kittim.tumblr.com

Eli of Kittim

Eli Kittim is a Biblical Researcher and an Award-Winning Goodreads Author of the...

So, this type of ad hominem attack certainly doesn’t help his cause. He writes:

The ever-so frustrating lack of quotation

marks and citations once again blurs the

lines between Mr Kittim and his source

material’s words.

Stupik continues:

Mr. Eli Kittim abruptly begins his critique …

with a quote from prominent reformed

theologian Dr. R.C Sproul. ‘There is no

maverick molecule if God is sovereign’ he

transcribes, and then, interjecting,

elaborates that ‘if God cannot control the

smallest things we know of in the universe,

such as the subatomic particles known as

“quarks,” then we cannot trust him to keep

His promises.’ At first glance of the article

itself, one may be justifiably met with

confusion. Are these the words of Dr.

Sproul, or of Mr. Kittim? Granted, Dr. Sproul

has previously expounded upon his

‘maverick molecule’ catchphrase in similar

fashion, but there are no quotations, and

there is no citation!

Apparently, Stupik is not familiar with block quotes, which are offset from the main text, indented, double-spaced, and require no quotation marks. Just to give the reader an idea of Stupik’s misrepresentation, here’s the actual page. Notice how R.C. Sproul’s quote is very clearly distinguished from the main text by being indented and double-spaced: “Does God Create Evil?: Answering the Calvinists”: https://eli-kittim.tumblr.com/post/656643262452531200/does-god-create-evil-answering-the-calvinists

Eli of Kittim

Does God Create Evil?: Answering the Calvinists

By Award-Winning Author Eli Kittim ——- Calvinism Has Confused God's Foreknowledge With His Sovereignty Dr. R.C. Sproul once said:

As you can see, there’s absolutely no question as to which are Dr. Sproul’s words and which are mine. Moreover, famous quotes by famous authors are in the public domain. They require no citation. This smacks of underhand tactics to taint my reputation from the outset——so as to manipulate the readers——and portray my essay as if it involves nothing but literary incompetence.

Furthermore, his refusal to acknowledge the obvious meaning of Dr. Sproul’s statement shows a lack of familiarity with the theological literature. He writes:

Kittim, continues, ‘Just because God sets

the universe in motion doesn’t mean that

every detail therein is held ipso facto to be

caused by him.’ … Kittim however, …

provides no biblical evidence to the contrary

of omnicausality, fatalism, or determinism.

Additionally, in the aforementioned quote,

Dr. Sproul makes no such claim of

omnicausality, fatalism, or determinism;

he’s simply making a point of God’s

sovereignty– that is to say, his

omniordinance.

All these points are disingenuous and misrepresent both Dr. Sproul and Calvinism. As I will show, there is overwhelming evidence of omnicausality and theological determinism in Calvinism. And anyone familiar with Dr. Sproul——who has read and heard his lectures on this topic—-knows quite well that this is exactly what he means when he says “There is no maverick molecule if God is sovereign.” Stupik also criticizes me for introducing the doctrine of foreknowledge without sufficiently explaining it. But anyone undertaking a critical review of my work on this topic should be thoroughly steeped in this concept and should not require preliminary definitions, especially when Calvin himself rejected it as a theological alternative to his doctrine of sovereignty. Moreover, he quotes me as saying “God could still be sovereign and yet simultaneously permit the existence of evil and free will.” To which he adds: “Again, this is also agreeable in a general sense. … John Calvin held virtually the same position – albeit in a more nuanced way.” No, he didn’t! This is a complete fabrication and an utter misunderstanding of Calvin’s thought, as I will show in due time.

Actually, Stupik himself does the very thing he accuses me of doing when he’s sometimes mingling his quotes with mine, adding irrelevant citations, coupled with a few punctuation errors and typos where we don’t even know exactly which New Testament letter he’s referring to. He mentions Cor 2:7, but is it 1 Corinthians or 2 Corinthians? It’s anyone’s guess. Just like his essay, his citations are sometimes vague and ambiguous, off-topic, and in short supply.

Then he says something that conveys his lack of theological understanding: “The reason why God predestined some for salvation does not matter, and so Kittim’s apparent reason (that God foreknew them) is not a sound refutation of Calvinism.” Of course it matters! If God is held accountable for orchestrating everything according to his sovereign will, then neither the devil nor human beings can be held morally responsible for all their crimes against humanity. Besides, there can be no free will. How can he possibly say that the criteria upon which God predestined a limited few to salvation——and a great deal more to damnation——“does not matter”?

He asks:

If God predestined his elect because He

foreknew them, why must he predestine

them to do anything at all? In other words, if

God foreknew that someone would ‘freely

choose’ him, of what use is predestination?

This is mentioned in the Bible in order to reject the theological notion that God cannot possibly know the future in an exhaustive sense. It lets us know that God can indeed foresee the future as well as those who will accept or reject his invitation to salvation (cf. Isaiah 46.10). The ability to see events in the future not only certifies and authenticates the message and character of God, for the purpose of putting your trust in the Lord, but it also reveals his omniscience through the inscripturated words: “I am the LORD, and there is no other; apart from me there is no God” (Isa. 45.5; 46.9 NIV; cf. Deut. 18.20-22). Thus, through the doctrine of foreknowledge or predestination, the Lord informs us that he is truly God and that he’s able to foresee those who will inherit eternal life and be glorified! It’s Stupek’s view that is actually incomprehensible. Why would scripture tell us that some have been predestined to hell and some to heaven before their birth? How does that justify a just and righteous God?

Then Stupik challenges my interpretation of the parable of the vineyard workers found in Matthew 20:1-16. I write:

The point of the parable is that God is fair.

No one gets cheated. However, in

Calvinism, God is not fair. He does as he

pleases. He creates evil and chooses who

will be saved and who will be lost. … That’s

why Calvinism speaks of limited atonement.

Christ’s atoning death is not for everyone,

but only for a select few.

To which Stupik responds:

As for Kittim’s first point, that God is ‘unfair’

in Calvinism, no explanation is given as to

why this Calvinist God is ‘unfair.’ Is God

unfair because he does what he pleases?

No, because he cannot desire sin. Is God

unfair because he doesn’t save all? No,

because we are not deserving of God’s

mercy and grace, and so his necessary

judgement is merely a form of God’s perfect

righteousness.

Just as he rarely uses citations to support his views, he similarly offers no proof, here, not even a passing reference to show how God’s arbitrary judgments to save some, but not others, can be reconciled with “God’s perfect righteousness.” He further compounds his mistakes by neither acknowledging nor addressing the well-known fact that Calvinist predestination is based on God’s will, not man’s. He brushes that aside by trying to excuse the unjust decrees of the Calvinist god——when he randomly predestines people to hell——as something we actually deserve, even if those decrees were formulated before we were born. How ironic is that?

In fact, he goes so far as to say:

As John Calvin himself wrote, ‘Though their

perdition depends on the predestination of

God, the cause and matter of it is in

themselves.’ Of course, God does not have

to create evil in order for the reprobate to

exist. In our fallen state, we are incapable of

salvation. Although He ordains all that

comes to pass, God has never been the

direct and efficient cause of evil; he is

inversely incapable of doing so.

This is actually a misleading description of Calvinist theology. It will become apparent shortly that it is completely bogus and misinformed! Initially, I wrote that “Calvinists often use Bible verses out-of-context to support the idea that God is partial: that he plays favorites with human beings. They often quote Exodus 33.19b.” Yet, Stupik asked for proof whether this is, in fact, the case. This is a rather silly point which reveals a certain degree of incompetence and immaturity on his part, and it’s also a dead giveaway that Stupik is not quite so literate as he would have us believe. To ask for proof that Calvinists use Exodus 33.19 to support that God is partial is like asking for proof that the pope is Catholic.

Then he tries to shift the focus and explain away Calvin’s view of divine bias through a sort of glorification of favoritism. In other words, he suggests that god’s discrimination isn’t so much about the inequality of injustice and partiality as it is about the glory of election. Yet, the idea that the Calvinist god predestinates the doom of the reprobate is conveniently neither discussed nor even acknowledged by Stupik.

Stupik’s language is often vague, ambiguous, and difficult to understand, forcing us to guess what he means. He first defends god’s bias and partiality, even though it is not a flattering attribute of the Calvinist god who randomly and arbitrarily chooses who will be saved and who will be lost, but later he will contradict himself by defending the Calvinist god as just, ethical, and righteous. In attempting to exegete Romans 8.28-29, he says:

the very semantics of the verse create a

much better case for partiality. If the verse

is a proof of impartiality, why is the verse

about ‘οτι ους (those whom) God foreknew’,

and not simply ‘all’? As it deals with a

specific group – ‘οτι ους,’ there is inherent

partiality present in Rom 8:28-29.

Additionally, … there are plenty of verses

which create a strong case for partiality –

chiefly in the very existence of the

reprobate. Presented in short-form for

brevity, see Matt. 13:49-50, 1 Thess. 1:9,

Matt. 5:22, and 2 Thess. 1:7b-8 for

yourselves. Clearly, if the Calvinist

soteriology is correct, the New Testament

more definitively describes a God of even

bare-minimum partiality – insofar as not all

will be saved..

Incidentally, in Romans 8.29, the reason God speaks about those whom he foreknew (ὅτι οὓς προέγνω) is because he’s only speaking about the elect: those who will inherit eternal salvation. He’s obviously not talking about the unsaved: those who will NOT inherit eternal salvation. So why would we expect him to speak about “all” people in the context of salvation? Romans 8.29 is not talking about God’s partiality in choosing some over against others but rather about the salvation of the elect: “those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son.” It would be an eisegesis to interpret this verse as evidence of partiality. That’s not what it’s talking about. And that’s precisely why the context doesn’t warrant a reference to “all” people. Besides, to say that God foresaw the elect beforehand is not the same as saying that God caused some to be the elect and others to be reprobates. Here Stupik is positing his own private interpretation, which is based on poor research methods.

But notice the 180 degree turn in the opposite direction where Stupik now claims to agree with me and argues that “God ‘does not cause everything to happen as it does,’ because … he is never the efficient cause of evil”:

As clarified earlier, God is not the direct, or

in Aristotelian terms, the efficient cause of

evil. In other words, God is not creating evil.

Kittim asks ‘What ever happened to the

attribute of omnibenevolence, the doctrine

that God is all-good, sans evil (cf. Ps 106.1;

135.3; Nah. 1.7; Mk 10.18)? Isaiah 65.16 calls

him “the God of truth” (cf. Jn 17.17), while

Titus 1.1-2 asserts that God “never lies.” ‘

The answer is simple, Calvinism shares that

very doctrine (Institutes 3:23:2-5).

Stupik continues:

A most common misunderstanding of

Calvinism is that Calvin did not believe in

any form of free will. As stated earlier,

Calvin did in fact believe in a form of human

agency, as he details in Institutes Book 1

Chapter 15 Section 8.

I will prove that this is actually not true. In fact, you cannot look an atheist in the eye and tell them that Christ died for you. You’d be lying because, according to Calvinism, he may not have died for them. So the story goes…

So, there seems to be a theological confusion in Calvinism about what God does and doesn’t do. In my view, predestination is based on foreknowledge, not on the impulsive whims of a capricious deity. To “cause” is one thing; to “foreknow” is quite another.

Predestination

Predestination is, by definition, the doctrine that all events in the universe have been willed by God (i.e. fatalism). It is a form of theological determinism, which presupposes that all history is pre-ordained or predestined to occur. It is based on the absolute sovereignty of God (aka omnipotence). However, there seems to be a paradox in which God’s will appears to be incompatible with human free-will.

The concept of predestination is found only several times in the Bible. It is, however, a very popular doctrine as it is commonly held by many different churches and denominations. But it’s also the seven-headed dragon of soteriology because of its forbidding controversy, which arises when we ask the question, “on what basis does God make his choice?” Not to mention, how do you tell people God loves them and that Jesus died for you?

But if we study both the Old and New Testaments, especially in the original Biblical languages, we will come to realize that predestination doesn’t seem to be based on God’s sovereignty but rather on his “foreknowledge.” This is the *Prescience* view of Predestination, namely, that the decision of salvation and/or condemnation is ultimately based on an individual’s free choice. For example, John MacArthur argues that “the offer is always unlimited or man couldn’t be condemned for rejecting it.”

Let’s take a look at the Old Testament. Isaiah 65.12 (ESV) employs the Hebrew term וּמָנִ֨יתִי (ū·mā·nî·ṯî) to mean “I will destine,” which is derived from the word מָנָה (manah) and means to “appoint” or “reckon.” But on what basis does God make his choice of predestination to damnation (aka the doctrine of reprobation)? God says:

I will destine [or predestine] you to the

sword, and all of you shall bow down to the

slaughter, because, when I called, you did

not answer; when I spoke, you did not listen,

but you did what was evil in my eyes and

chose what I did not delight in.

It’s important to note that those who are condemned to damnation are predestined to go there because when God called them, they didn’t respond to his call. When God tried to enlighten them, they “did not listen,“ but instead “did what was evil” in his sight. In fact, they did what God disapproved of! That’s a far cry from claiming, as the Calvinists do, that God willed it all along. Notice that God’s predestination for the reprobates is not based on his will for them not to be saved, but rather because they themselves had sinned. This is an explicit textual reference which indicates that it was something God “did not delight in.” So, it’s not as if God predestined reprobates to hell based on his sovereign will, as Calvinism would have us believe, but rather because they themselves chose to “forsake the LORD” (Isa. 65.11).

The New Testament offers a similar explanation of God’s official verdict pertaining to the doctrine of reprobation, namely, that condemnation depends on human will, not on God’s will. John 3.16 (NIV) reads:

For God so loved the world that he gave his

one and only Son, that whoever believes in

him shall not perish but have eternal life.

Notice, it doesn’t say that only a limited few can believe and be saved by Jesus. Rather, it says “whoever believes in him [ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν] shall not perish but have eternal life.” That is, anyone who believes in Jesus will not be condemned but will be saved, and will therefore be reckoned as one of the elect. Verse 17 says: “For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.” Once again, there’s a clear distinction between the individual and the world as a whole, as well as a contrast between condemning and saving the world, and we are told that the Son was sent to save the entire world. The next verse (v. 18) explains that condemnation itself ultimately lies not with God but with our own personal choices and decisions. “Whoever does not believe stands condemned already” (i.e. is predestined to condemnation):

Whoever believes in him is not condemned,

but whoever does not believe stands

condemned already because they have not

believed in the name of God’s one and only

Son.

Verse 19 puts this dilemma in its proper perspective and gives us the judicial verdict, as it were, that we are ultimately responsible for our actions:

This is the verdict: Light has come into the

world, but people loved darkness instead of

light because their deeds were evil.

Similarly, Mt. 22.14 clearly shows that those that are not chosen are nevertheless called: “For many are called, but few are chosen.”

Why would God call them if he already knew that they wouldn’t be chosen? Would he be calling them out of spite? What is more, according to the Biblical text, anyone can become a member of God’s family. Just because God already “foreknows” who will accept and who will reject his soteriological invitation doesn’t mean that people are held unaccountable. For Christ doesn’t only take away the sin of the elect, but of the entire world (Jn 1.29 NKJV): “Behold! The Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world!” First John 2.2 reads:

And He Himself is the propitiation for our

sins, and not for ours only but also for the

whole world.

In a similar fashion, Rev 22.17 (KJ) says: “Come. And let him that is athirst come. And whosoever will, let him take the water of life freely [δωρεάν].” That doesn’t sound to me like a predestined election in which only a select few will receive the water of life, but rather a proclamation that salvation is “freely” (δωρεάν) offered to anyone who desires it. Moreover, in 2 Pet. 3.9 (ESV), we are told that “The Lord” doesn’t want to condemn anyone at all: “[he’s] not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance.” Is this biblical reference compatible with Calvin’s views? Definitely not! Calvin suggests that god is the author of sin and the only one who ultimately decides on who will repent and who will perish.

If, in fact, God predestined some to salvation and some to perdition, so that Jesus didn’t die for all people but only for a limited few, then it wouldn’t make any sense for the New Testament to say that Christ “gave himself a ransom for all.” Nor would God contradict himself by saying that “he desires everyone to be saved.” First Timothy 2.3-6 (NRSV) reads:

This is right and is acceptable in the sight of

God our Savior, who desires everyone to be

saved and to come to the knowledge of the

truth. For there is one God; there is also one

mediator between God and humankind,

Christ Jesus, himself human, who gave

himself a ransom for all [ὑπὲρ πάντων].

So Christ “gave himself a ransom for all [not for some].” Notice that Christ’s atonement potentially covers even sinners who are not yet part of the “elect.” In the following verse, observe what the text says. There were apostates who denied “the Lord who bought them.” This means that Christ’s atonement is not “limited”; it covers them, as well. Second Peter 2.1 (NKJV) reads:

But there were also false prophets among

the people, even as there will be false

teachers among you, who will secretly bring

in destructive heresies, even denying the

Lord who bought them, and bring on

themselves swift destruction.

Prescience (Foreknowledge)

The Greek term that is typically used for predestination is also used in Rom. 1.4 (ESV), namely, the term ὁρισθέντος (from ὁρίζω), which carries the meaning of “determining beforehand,” “appointing,” or “designating.” However, notice that, here, this term is translated as “declared”:

and was declared to be the Son of God in

power according to the Spirit of holiness by

his resurrection from the dead, Jesus Christ

our Lord.

But was Jesus Christ predestined to be the Son of God? No. He already was the Son of God. Nevertheless, what he would perform in the future was “declared” beforehand, or announced in advance. This verse, then, demonstrates that the word “foreknown” would be a more accurate translation than “predestined”!

Similarly, Rom. 8.29 (ESV) tells us that those he “foreknew” (προέγνω), the same God προώρισεν (from προορίζω), that is, foreordained, predetermined, or pre-appointed beforehand. And Rom. 8.30 goes on to say that those he προώρισεν (predetermined) were the same that God also called, justified, and glorified. Verse 29 says: “For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son.” Notice that God’s *foreknowledge* temporally precedes predestination. If God already predestined some, but not others, before the foundation of the world, then his foreknowledge would be irrelevant. But since it is on this basis that God predestines, it doesn’t sound as if predestination is chosen on the basis of God’s sovereign will.

Acts 4.28 does say that God’s will προώρισεν (predetermined beforehand) what will happen. But it doesn’t necessarily follow that everything that has occurred in human history is based on the will of God (i.e. fatalism). And we don’t know to what extent God influences reality. So, we cannot jump to any conclusions that God is behind everything that happens. Why? Because with absolute responsibility comes absolute blame. Is God responsible for murder, or rape, or genocide? I think not! So, we are on safer ground if we acknowledge that God “foreknew” what would happen and declared it beforehand (cf. Isa. 46.10). This Arminian notion would be far more consistent with the Bible than placing the full blame for everything that has ever occurred in the world on God. This seems to be the Achilles’ heel of Calvinism!

The fact that God created the universe obviously implies that he had a purpose for it. So, I’m not discounting the notion that all things are, in a certain sense, guided by his ultimate purpose. However, I take issue with those thinkers who take it to the extreme and portray the deity as an authoritarian and capricious God who bypasses the principles of truth, justice, and wisdom and intervenes by forcibly coercing man’s free will. That type of God is inconsistent with the infinitely wise, holy, true, and good God of the Bible. That is precisely why “Arminius taught that Calvinist predestination and unconditional election made God the author of evil” (Wiki)!

Quotations From Calvin’s Works

Excerpted from John Calvin’s “Institutes of the Christian religion,” Book 3, ch 23.

Calvin’s chief argument can be summarized as follows: men are, by nature, wicked, so if god has predestined some to eternal hellfire, why do they complain? They deserve it. He exclaims:

Accordingly, when we are accosted in such

terms as these, Why did God from the first

predestine some to death, when, as they

were not yet in existence, they could not

have merited sentence of death? let us by

way of reply ask in our turn, What do you

imagine that God owes to man, if he is

pleased to estimate him by his own nature?

As we are all vitiated by sin, we cannot but

be hateful to God, and that not from

tyrannical cruelty, but the strictest justice.

But if all whom the Lord predestines to

death are naturally liable to sentence of

death, of what injustice, pray, do they

complain?

He continues his accusatory thought that even though god condemned people to hellfire long before they were born or had done anything to warrant such an outcome, they nevertheless deserve it and should not complain. Calvin callously says:

Should all the sons of Adam come to

dispute and contend with their Creator,

because by his eternal providence they

were before their birth doomed to perpetual

destruction, when God comes to reckon

with them, what will they be able to mutter

against this defense? If all are taken from a

corrupt mass, it is not strange that all are

subject to condemnation. Let them not,

therefore, charge God with injustice, if by

his eternal judgment they are doomed to a

death to which they themselves feel that

whether they will or not they are drawn

spontaneously by their own nature.

But if this decree was foreordained by an absolutely sovereign god even before people were born and prior to having committed any transgressions, why are they held accountable for their sins? It appears to be a contradiction. Curiously enough, John Calvin,

admit[s] that by the will of God all the sons

of Adam fell into that state of wretchedness

in which they are now involved; and this is

just what I said at the first, that we must

always return to the mere pleasure of the

divine will, the cause of which is hidden in

himself.

So he admits that we all sinned “by the will of God” and that god does as he pleases, yet he concludes: who are we to question god’s decisions? But is this a proper explanation of predestination that fully justifies god’s justice, or is it rather an incoherent and unsatisfactory answer? Calvin insensitively asserts:

They again object, Were not men

predestinated by the ordination of God to

that corruption which is now held forth as

the cause of condemnation? If so, when

they perish in their corruptions they do

nothing else than suffer punishment for that

calamity, into which, by the predestination

of God, Adam fell, and dragged all his

posterity headlong with him. Is not he,

therefore, unjust in thus cruelly mocking his

creatures? … For what more seems to be

said here than just that the power of God is

such as cannot be hindered, so that he can

do whatsoever he pleases?

Reprobation, according to Calvin, is based on the notion “that not all people have been chosen but that some have not been chosen or have been passed by in God’s eternal election.” But if no one deserves the merits of salvation, and if no one obeys the will of god except by god’s grace, then how is god’s election justified? Calvin’s response that it’s justified because god is just is not an explanation: it is a tautological redundancy. Calvin’s reply would be: god decided not to save everybody, and who are we to criticize him? Unfortunately, that’s not an adequate or satisfactory answer.

God’s decision to save some people is called election, and his decision not to save other people is called preterition. According to Calvinism, god chooses to bypass sinners by not granting them belief, which is equivalent, in a certain sense, to creating unbelief (by omission) in them. In other words, god chooses to save some, but not others. And it pleases him to do so. So, is the god of Calvinism just?

Is this truly the love of Christ that is freely offered to all? By contrast, according to Scripture, God wishes to save everyone without exception (1 Tim. 2.4; 2 Pet. 3.9; Ezek. 18.23; Mt. 23.37). When Matthew 22.14 says, “For many are called, but few are chosen,” it clearly shows that those that are not chosen are still “called.” It doesn’t mean that god did not choose them for salvation. It means they themselves chose to decline the offer of their own accord. How can one logically argue that god wants all people to be saved but only chooses to save some of them? It is a contradiction in terms. And then to attribute this injustice and inequality to what appears to be an “arrogant” god who does as he pleases is dodging the issue.

However, Calvin rejects prescience on account “that all events take place by his [god’s] sovereign appointment”:

If God merely foresaw human events, and

did not also arrange and dispose of them at

his pleasure, there might be room for

agitating the question, how far his

foreknowledge amounts to necessity; but

since he foresees the things which are to

happen, simply because he has decreed

that they are so to happen, it is vain to

debate about prescience, while it is clear

that all events take place by his sovereign

appointment.

So, Calvin ultimately places all responsibility and accountability on god, who has foreordained all events “by his sovereign appointment.” But if hell was prepared for the devil and his angels (Mt 25.41), and if god is held accountable for orchestrating everything, then the devil cannot be held morally responsible for all his crimes against humanity. Therefore, according to Calvinism, it would logically follow that god is ultimately responsible for evil, which would implicate himself to be ipso facto evil! There’s no way to extricate god from that logical conclusion. And many Calvinists admit that God creates evil. Jim Brown of Truth & Grace Ministries is one of them.

Calvin Says that god Created Evil at his Own Pleasure

In Calvin’s view, god decreed that Adam should sin. In other words, god decrees all sin, which is a sign of his omnipotence and will. How revolting? Calvin writes:

They deny that it is ever said in distinct

terms, God decreed that Adam should

perish by his revolt. As if the same God, who

is declared in Scripture to do whatsoever he

pleases, could have made the noblest of his

creatures without any special purpose.

They say that, in accordance with free-will,

he was to be the architect of his own

fortune, that God had decreed nothing but

to treat him according to his desert. If this

frigid fiction is received, where will be the

omnipotence of God, by which, according to

his secret counsel on which every thing

depends, he rules over all?

Invariably, Calvin places the blame indirectly on god. Calvin holds to an uncompromising hard-determinism position, without the slightest possibility of free will, by claiming that even god’s foreknowledge is “ordained by his decree”:

it is impossible to deny that God foreknew

what the end of man was to be before he

made him, and foreknew, because he had

so ordained by his decree.

If this isn’t an evil doctrine, I don’t know what is. I’m not sure how much more blasphemous or heretical it can get. This is a far more dangerous doctrine than, say, that of the Snake handling Christian cults. Calvin unabashedly declares that god created evil in the world “at his own pleasure.” He further expounds his abominable view by writing:

God not only foresaw the fall of the

first man, and in him the ruin of his

posterity; but also at his own

pleasure arranged it.

Wasn’t Satan the one who supposedly arranged it? Hmm, now I’m not so sure … If god is the author of evil and the author of sin, why would he involve Satan in this script? In fact, Calvin insists that the wicked perish not because of god’s permission but because of his will. He says that “their perdition depends on the predestination of God … The first man fell because the Lord deemed it meet that he should: why he deemed it meet, we know not.” What a dreadful thing to say. It’s as if Calvin was under the inspiration of Satan, teaching “doctrines of demons” (1 Tim. 4.1 NKJV). Calvin continues:

Here they recur to the distinction between

will and permission, the object being to

prove that the wicked perish only by the

permission, but not by the will of God. But

why do we say that he permits, but just

because he wills? Nor, indeed, is there any

probability in the thing itself–viz. that man

brought death upon himself merely by the

permission, and not by the ordination of

God; as if God had not determined what he

wished the condition of the chief of his

creatures to be. I will not hesitate, therefore,

simply to confess with Augustine that the

will of God is necessity, and that every thing

is necessary which he has willed.

Calvin attempts to show that there’s no contradiction in his statement but, instead of providing logical proof, he once again resorts to circular reasoning, namely, that the accountability rests with an authoritarian god who does as he pleases. He goes on to say:

There is nothing inconsistent with this when

we say, that God, according to the good

pleasure of his will, without any regard to

merit, elects those whom he chooses for

sons, while he rejects and reprobates

others.

Instead of admitting that this is his own wicked view of god, which certainly deserves rebuke and severe criticism, he suggests that this is the way god really is. In other words, he indirectly blames god by way of compliments. By insisting on god’s Sovereignty and omnipotence, he sets god up to take the blame for everything. Yet in his evasive and largely indefensible argument, he ends up justifying the seemingly “capricious” acts of god by saying that god is still just:

Wherefore, it is false and most wicked to

charge God with dispensing justice

unequally, because in this predestination he

does not observe the same course towards

all. … he is free from every accusation; just

as it belongs to the creditor to forgive the

debt to one, and exact it of another.

Conclusion

Just because God set the universe in motion doesn’t mean that every detail therein is held ipso facto to be caused by him. God could still be sovereign and yet simultaneously permit the existence of evil and free will. This is not a philosophical contradiction (see Compatibilism aka Soft determinism).

The Calvinist god is not fair. He does as he pleases. He creates evil and chooses who will be saved and who will be lost. He is neither trustworthy nor does he equally offer unconditional love to all! In fact, this view is more in line with the capricious gods of Greek mythology than with the immutable God of the Bible.

Calvin’s deity is surprisingly similar to the god of the Gnostics, who was responsible for all instances of falsehood and evil in the world! This is the dark side of a pagan god who doesn’t seem to act according to the principles of truth and wisdom but according to personal whims. With this god, you could end up in hell in a heartbeat, through no fault of your own. Therefore, Calvin’s god is more like Satan!

This is certainly NOT the loving, trustworthy, and righteous God of the Bible in whom “There is no evil” whatsoever (Ps 92.15 NLT; Jas. 1.13). Calvin’s god is not “the God of truth” (Isa. 65.16; cf. Jn 17.17), who “never lies” (Tit. 1.1-2), and who is all-good, sans evil (cf. Ps 106.1; 135.3; Nah. 1.7; Mk 10.18). Calvin’s theology does not square well with the NT notion “that God is light and in him there is no darkness at all” (1 Jn 1.5 NRSV)!

Thus, Calvin’s argument is not only fallacious, unsound, and unbiblical, but also completely disingenuous. For if “life and death are fixed by an eternal and immutable decree of God,” including the prearrangement of sin “at his own pleasure,” as Calvin asserts, then “to charge God with dispensing justice unequally” is certainly a valid and robust criticism! Calvin harshly accused his critics of promulgating blasphemies, but little did he realize the greater blasphemies and abominations that he himself was uttering! A case in point is that he makes God the author of sin!

Jonathan Edwards (who was of the Reformed tradition), in his treatise on The Freedom of the Will, wrote:

I do not deny that God is the Author

of Sin.

Therefore, in Calvinism, God has become Satan!

——-

The Quran Mirrors the Bible: Surah 3.55 Echoes Revelation 12.5

By Author & Bible Researcher Eli Kittim 🎓

——-

Surah 3.55 (Quran)

Lo! Allah said: “O Isa (Jesus)! Verily, I shall

cause thee to die, and shall raise thee up

unto Me … unto the Day of Resurrection.

——-

Revelation 12.4-5 (Bible)

Then the dragon stood before the woman

who was about to bear a child, so that he

might devour her child as soon as it was

born. And she gave birth to a son [Jesus], a

male child, who is to rule all the nations

with a rod of iron. But her child was

snatched away and taken to God and to his

throne.

——-

Commentary

The reference to the “great red dragon, with seven heads and ten horns” (Rev. 12.3) indicates that this event is taking place in the end-times. That’s because the 10 horns are said to “make war on the Lamb, and the Lamb will conquer them” (Rev. 17.12-14) at the end of the age! So, the temporal juxtaposition of the “great red dragon” with the pregnant woman (Rev. 12.2) signifies that the dragon and the pregnant woman are contemporaries. In other words, they exist at the same point in time. The idea that “the dragon stood before the woman who was about to bear a child [Jesus], so that he might devour her child as soon as it was born” (Rev. 12.4) means that the dragon wanted to put the newborn to death. The sequence of events continues as follows (Rev. 12.5):

she gave birth to a son [Jesus], a male

child, who is to rule all the nations with a

rod of iron. But her child was snatched

away and taken to God and to his throne.

Curiously enough, the verse doesn’t deny that the newborn was killed. It only affirms that he was subsequently “snatched away” or raptured unto God. The Greek word ἡρπάσθη comes from ἁρπάζω (harpazó), which is the same word used in 1 Thess. 4.17 for the rapture! But this is also a reference to the resurrection of the dead, which occurs simultaneously with the rapture (see 1 Thess. 4.16-17). Incidentally, in this context, the term τέκνον or child seemingly refers to both a spiritual and a physical birth. Given the development of the passage, coupled with the said activities of the “son” (υἱόν)——i.e. dying, ascending to heaven, and so on——it’s quite obvious that, technically speaking, the child (Jesus) is not an infant. Thus, the biblical jargon suggests the initial physical appearance of Jesus on the world stage, who is spiritually born (or reborn) in God.

Revelation 12 clearly indicates that these are all end-time events. For example, cosmic “war broke out in heaven” (12.7). It’s also the time when Satan will be incarnated as the Antichrist & the kingdom of God “and the authority of his Messiah” will come into full view (Rev. 12.10). Further proof is given by the allusion to the Great Tribulation (Rev. 12.14), which lasts for 42 months or 3 and one half years (cf. Dan. 7.25; 12.7; Rev. 11.2; 13.5). Revelation 12.13-14 informs us that the dragon then persecuted the people of God——represented by the woman, the mother church, as it were——but they were protected for 3 and one half years:

[the dragon] pursued the woman who had

given birth to the male child [Jesus]. But the

woman was given the two wings of the

great eagle, so that she could fly from the

serpent into the wilderness, to her place

where she is nourished for a time, and

times, and half a time.

Conclusion

So what does it mean? Revelation 12 is basically telling us that the child Jesus is born in the end-times and dies soon thereafter. Then, the implication is that he is raised from the dead and “snatched away” into heaven. Since the rapture and the resurrection of the dead occur simultaneously, and since this event takes place in the end-times, it must happen during the so-called “Great day of Resurrection,” when all the dead who ever lived will come back to life (cf. Dan. 12.1-2; 1 Thess. 4.16-17; 1 Cor. 15.22-24)!

Surprisingly, that’s precisely what the Quran implies as well. Surah 3.55 seems to say that Jesus’ death, resurrection, and ascension will take place in the end-times, during the Day of Resurrection:

Lo! Allah said: “O Isa (Jesus)! Verily, I shall cause thee to die, and shall raise thee up unto Me … unto the Day of Resurrection.

Therefore, Surah 3.55 (Quran) seems to echo Revelation 12.5 (Bible).

——-

The Eli Kittim Confession of Faith

I believe in one Lord Jesus Christ, who is

both God and man, who for the sake of the

human race, and for our salvation, came

down from heaven in the fullness of time,

and was made man; he appeared once in

the end of the world, and suffered, and was

buried, and the third day he rose again,

according to the Scriptures, and ascended

into heaven, and sat on the right hand of

the Father; from thence he shall come, with

glory, to judge the living and the dead.

——-

Η ομολογία της πίστης του Έλι Κιττίμ

Πιστεύω εις ένα Θεό παντοκράτορα, ποιητήν

ουρανού και γης, ορατών τε πάντων και

αοράτων. Και εις ένα Κύριον Ιησούν Χριστόν

τον Υιόν του Θεού τον μονογενή. Φως

εκ φωτός, Θεόν αληθινόν, ομοούσιον τω

Πατρί, δι’ου τα πάντα εγένετο. Τον δι’ημάς

τους ανθρώπους και δια την ημετέραν

σωτηρίαν κατελθόντα εκ των ουρανών και

σαρκωθέντα εκ Πνεύματος Αγίου και

ενανθρωπήσαντα εἰς τὸ πλήρωμα τοῦ

χρόνου. Και παθόντα και ταφέντα. Και

αναστάντα τη Τρίτη ημέρα κατά τας

Γραφάς. Και ανελθόντα εις τους ουρανούς

ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων και ἐκαθέζετο εκ

δεξιών του Πατρός. Και ερχόμενον

μετά δόξης κρίναι ζώντας και νεκρούς, ου

της βασιλείας ουκ έσται τέλος.

——-

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🚫 Millennialism Debunked

By Eli Kittim

The Contradictions of Millennialism

Millennialism is a belief that there will be a paradise here on earth before the final judgment. There are, of course, various scriptural discrepancies within this view, as I have often pointed out in my other papers. For example, how will people live here on earth if the earth itself will be destroyed in a great conflagration? 2 Pet. 3.10 reads:

“the heavens will pass away with a loud

noise, and the elements will be dissolved

with fire.”

Besides, there are other contradictions. For instance, how could the same people who would not be resurrected “until the thousand years were completed” (Rev. 20.5) simultaneously live and reign with Christ for a millennium? (Rev. 20.4). They cannot be both dead and alive at the same time! There are other contradictions as well. For example, Millennialism directly contradicts scripture by implying that there will be at least 2 additional comings of Christ, 2 appearances by Satan, 2 Great Wars, 2 Great tribulations, 2 resurrections, 2 apocalypses, 2 Armageddons, 2 judgments, 2 Great Ends, and so on. This is preposterous. In Scripture, there is only one of each. Scripture mentions only one resurrection (Dan. 12.2) and only one Armageddon (Rev. 16.16)! Where else does it mention a second resurrection or a second Armageddon? Besides, 1 Thess. 4.17 says that after the rapture “we will be with the Lord forever,” not just for 1,000 years. And the Book of Daniel is clear that both the Saved and the Damned will be resurrected simultaneously, not successively (12.2). Therefore, this DOUBLING of scriptural events is unwarranted and without merit! It is worth mentioning that the doctrine of millennialism was formally condemned at the Second Ecumenical Council in 381 AD.

Millennialism Repeats Events a Second Time; But Revelation is Recording Single Events

The same event that is mentioned in Ezekiel 38 is repeated in Revelation 20. The endtime Gog/Magog war that Satan is said to unleash at the end of the millennium (Rev. 20.8) is the exact same Gog/Magog war that is mentioned in Ezekiel 38, which is also alluded to in Luke 21.20! The Book of Revelation isn’t saying that the exact same Gog/Magog war of Ezekiel will repeat 1,000 years later. That’s ridiculous. It’s actually talking about one and the same Gog-Magog war; not 2. In fact, the phrase that is used to indicate that Satan will be released “for a little while” (Rev 20.3) is actually a reference to the Great Tribulation, which only lasts for “a little while,” namely, only 3 and a half years, or 42 months, or 1,260 days, or a time, and times, and half a time (cf. Rev. 11.2; 12.6, 14; 13.5)!

Moreover, the narrative in Rev 19 & 20 is basically telling the reader what will happen when God no longer restrains Satan (see 2 Thess 2.7)——that is, when the restrainer is removed——and the Antichrist is finally revealed at the end of a thousand years. That’s when Satan will be unleashed, once and for all, to wreak havoc “for a little while” (i.e. for 3 and a half years, during the Great Tribulation)!

Why would the Book of Revelation REPEAT the exact same story TWICE, like the film “Edge Of Tomorrow”? Why would Satan (Incarnated; Rev. 12.9) come out TWICE “to deceive the nations at the four corners of the earth [from the exact same location, Gog & Magog (Ezekiel 38)] in order to gather them for the [exact same] battle” (Rev. 20.7-9)? And why is it that “fire came down from heaven and consumed them” (Rev 20.9) exactly as it did in Ezekiel 38.22? And why is it that they “surrounded the camp of the saints and the beloved city” exactly as they did in Luke 21.20? Are you kidding me? What is this, a repeat of “Groundhog Day”?

There’s an Interpretive Mixup: Millennialists Conflate Scenes that Occur Before 1,000 Years with Scenes that Occur After 1,000 Years

If Jesus appears BEFORE the millennium on a white horse, and the beast and his armies are killed, and the beast is then captured and “thrown alive into the lake of fire” (Rev 19.19-21), then how does Satan manage to escape “the lake of fire” and mount a comeback? Notice that following Christ’s FIRST encounter with the Beast, BEFORE the millennium (Rev. ch. 20), the Beast was captured & immediately “thrown alive into the lake of fire” (Rev. ch. 19)! But the lake of fire is the second death! It’s game over! No one survives the lake of fire and comes back to to tell stories about it. That’s another red flag. It would be a scriptural contradiction to state that AFTER being “thrown into the lake of fire,” the Antichrist escaped and mounted a comeback. That would constitute a scriptural contradiction. Notice the description of the “lake of fire” in Rev. 20.14:

“Then Death and Hades were thrown into the

lake of fire. This is the second death, the

lake of fire.”

This event is final! It is the final separation of life and death. So, it’s completely bogus to say that Satan survived the lake of fire in chapter 19 & came back physically to fulfill chapter 20. It’s complete nonsense! Moreover, Satan’s activities in Rev. 20 suggest that he’s incarnate, otherwise how does a nonphysical being fight a war on earth? Besides, Rev. 12.9 tells us that Satan will be incarnated on earth! So, the Millennialists are mixing apples with oranges. They’re conflating scenes that happen BEFORE the 1,000 years (Rev. 19) with scenes that take place AFTER the 1,000 years (Rev. 20)! And if the description in Rev 20.10—-concerning what happens to Satan AFTER the supposed 1,000 years——turns out to be the exact same version of Rev 19.20—-about what happens to Satan BEFORE the 1,000 years——then we obviously have one story, not two!

Conclusion

The Bible never mentions the alleged “thousand-year reign of Christ on earth.” Only 2 verses mention those who “reigned with Christ a thousand years.” These are temporal signs that reveal the timing of Christ’s coming and of the apocalyptic events! In other words, when the thousand years are completed, Satan will be loosed for a little while (a reference to the 3 and a half year Great Tribulation). Then, the resurrection will occur, followed by the rapture, and the believers will henceforth reign with Christ forever!