The Future Incarnation Of Christ - Tumblr Posts

The Little Book of Revelation: The First Coming of Jesus at the End of Days

 The Most controversial book ever written about Christ.

 This book uncovers a mystery, or rather, a shocking revelation hidden behind signs, symbols, and biblical codes. Based on a twenty-year study, it reveals a post-biblical conspiracy, perpetuated by the church, which has essentially turned prophecy into history. Even though the New Testament is quite adamant about the precise timing of Jesus' one and only coming--prophesied to occur "once in the end of the world" (Heb. 9:26, King James)--we have been led to believe that this event occurred two millennia ago. 

But if we fail to understand the Biblical story of Jesus, we'll compromise our prophetic interpretations of the end-times. And that's exactly what we've done! No wonder there is so much confusion among scholars concerning the identities of the four horsemen of Revelation, the so-called restrainer who "is taken out of the way" (2 Thess. 2:7), Elijah who comes to earth "before the coming of the great and terrible day of the LORD" (Mal. 4:5), and the like. How can this book remedy the situation? It accomplishes this by including prophecies concerning the correct timing of the coming Messiah, the Antichrist, and the apocalyptic events. 

This is a groundbreaking work whose evidence is rather compelling. It is a very special and highly original book, one that raises some serious questions about the validity of the long-held belief in the historical Jesus. And to that extent, one could say that it fuses the Messianic beliefs of Judaism with those of Christianity. 

The book was recently reviewed by BlueInk Review. Some of their comments were as follows: "Beautifully written," "Highly creative literary analysis." "An intriguing study." 

The book is available in 3 formats: Hardcover, Softcover, and eBook.

About the Author: Eli of Kittim (pen name) is a published author and an expert on Bible Prophecy.

Read a sample on Amazon by clicking on the link at the top of the page!

"Once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself."

(Hebrews 9:26, King James)

"The testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy."

(Revelation 19:10)

THE FULNESS OF THE TIMES, that is, the summing up of all things ... things in the heavens and things upon the earth." --Ephesians 1:10 "But when THE FULNESS OF THE TIME came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman.

--Galatians 4:4

"In deference to Biblical usage, we are not denying John’s proclamation of 'Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh' (2 John 1:7), but rather qualifying it in terms of its chronological relevance. In other words, we deny the timing of this event; not the event itself!"

Eli of Kittim

Eli of Kittim on the Future Incarnation of Christ

[These] men ... have gone astray from the truth saying that the resurrection has already taken place, and thus they upset [confuse] the faith of some.

2 Timothy 2:18

Debunking an age-old biblical truism of Jesus’ first coming two millennia ago.

Eli of Kittim Discusses his View of the Greek Jesus

Jesus Never Existed - Kenneth Humphreys

The Greek New Testament substantiates that the death of Christ occurs "In the End of the World."

By Author Eli Kittim

According to the original Greek New Testament (Hebrews 9:26b), Christ will be manifested once and for all "in the end of the world" to die for the sins of the world. It reads:

νυνϊ δε απαξ επι ϲυντελεια των αιωνων ειϲ αθετηϲιν τηϲ αμαρτιαϲ δια τηϲ θυϲιαϲ αυτου πεφανερωται.

Translation (King James Version):

"Once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself" (Hebrews 9:26).

Biblical scholars translate the Greek phrase "ϲυντελεια των αιωνων" to mean "in the end of the world." A similar phrase, "ϲυντελειαϲ του αιωvos,” can be found in the Gospel of Matthew chapter 28 and verse 20:

διδαϲκοντεϲ αυτουϲ τηριν παντα οϲα ενετιλαμην ϋμιν και ϊδου εγω ειμι μεθ υμων παϲαϲ ταϲ ημεραϲ εωϲ τηϲ ϲυντελειαϲ του αιωvos.

Translation (American Standard Version):

"teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I commanded you: and lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world."

Therefore, it is unquestionable that the Greek phrase "ϲυντελειαϲ του αιωvos" (Matthew 28:20) means "in the end of the world." And if that's the case, and it is, then the reference to Jesus being manifested once "επι ϲυντελεια των αιωνων" to die for the sins of the world (Hebrews 9:26) would certainly mean that his death occurs "Once in the end of the world," and not 2,000 years ago as is currently assumed!

The Greek New Testament Prophesies the Birth, Death, and Resurrection of Christ in the Last Days

By Author Eli Kittim

Theological Narrative versus Expository Writing in the New Testament

In order to procure accurate information from our interpretative methods, we must first differentiate between “theological narrative” and “expository writing” in the New Testament, which represent two distinct genres.

In narrative writing, the author’s main purpose is to tell a story using characters and dialogue. In the New Testament, the gospels employ this literary technique in an attempt to portray Jesus as the Messianic fulfillment of the Jewish prophecies. That is to say, the gospel “story” now becomes the fulfillment of the earlier Messianic promises of Jewish scripture. That is why the genealogy of Christ is inserted in the gospel texts: to ensure that this connection is established. But in order to do so, the gospel writers actually borrow a great deal from Hebrew scripture and tell a story, using characters and dialogue, which is wrapped in theological language. That’s why we do not encounter these “theological” themes in any of the epistles. For instance, the epistolary authors never once mention the nativity of Jesus, the virgin birth, the flight into Egypt, the star of Bethlehem, the magi, or even the city of Bethlehem as Jesus’ birth place. Therefore, we must come to realize that the gospels are “theological narratives,” not necessarily historical accounts, especially since we now know that the gospel authors were not eyewitnesses of these events, given that they composed their texts sometime around 70-100 CE. And like any good story, they are filled with drama, conflict, and intrigue. The gospel narratives are “characteristic” of situations and events that take place at some unspecified time, as reflected in the idea that Jesus died to redeem us. The timeline of the gospel events is thus in a transhistorical context, or within the context of the entire human history, not just past history.

On the other hand, the epistles (or “letters” of the New Testament) use “expository writing.” Expository writing’s main purpose is to explain. It is a subject-oriented writing style, in which authors focus on a given topic or subject without narrative embellishment or story-telling. The epistolary authors, for example, furnish the reader with relevant spiritual facts and principles but do not include dialogue or characters. So then, if we are to understand the mystery of Christ’s revelation, we must first differentiate between “theological narrative” and “expository writing” in the New Testament. Why? Because the authors of the epistles seemingly contradict the gospels since they allude to Christ’s revelation as occurring “once at the consummation of the ages” (Heb.9:26), or in the “last days” (Heb. 1:1-2), so that the correct timing of Christ’s coming suddenly becomes an open question! But if we realize that there is a clear line of demarcation between “theological narrative” (gospels) and “expository writing” (epistles), the hermeneutical problem ceases to exist and the text resolves itself into a meaningful and “inspired” manuscript.

The second thing that we must do is to challenge the kind of historical interpretation that affords little attention to the issue of translation. The New Testament was originally written in Greek (scholarly consensus). In order to engage in deep biblical exegesis, we must first understand what the original New Testament epistles (“expository writing”) have to say about the timing of Christ’s incarnation. So, let’s dive headfirst into the discussion to uncover the facts and clear the air. I will present the Greek text so that you can go over it and form your own conclusions.

The Greek Text: In the Fullness of Time Jesus is Born

In the Greek text, Romans 5:6 makes it quite clear that Christ died (ἀπέθανεν) at some unspecified time of human history by using the phrase κατὰ καιρὸν, which means “according to the right time,” or at the appropriate time, and does not necessarily refer to past history. http://biblehub.com/interlinear/romans/5-6.htm

Similarly, Galatians 4:4 tells us that when the “right time” or, more specifically, “the fullness of the time” had come, Christ was incarnated, “having been born of a woman” (γενόμενον ἐκ γυναικός). In Greek, “the fullness of the time” is τὸ πλήρωμα τοῦ χρόνου. The term πλήρωμα means fulness or completion while the term χρόνου refers to chronological time. It literally means when time reached its fullness or completion. http://biblehub.com/interlinear/galatians/4-4.htm

The consistency of biblical terms allows scripture to define itself. Rather than imposing our own speculations on the text (eisegesis), we should allow the Bible to interpret its own terms (exegesis) so that our interpretations and conclusions are accurate and in line with it.

Accordingly, Ephesians 1:10 defines the idiomatic phrase “the fullness of the times” (τοῦ πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν, which we encountered in Galatians 4:4) as the summing up (ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι) of all things in Christ (τὰ πάντα ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ), the things in the heavens (τὰ ἐπὶ τοῖς οὐρανοῖς) and the things upon the earth (καὶ τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς). In short, the designation “the fullness of the time” refers to the period of time when all things, both in the heavens and upon the earth, will conclude in Christ. In other words, τὸ πλήρωμα τοῦ χρόνου refers to the completion of time, which is another way of saying “the end of the world.” Yet, surprisingly, according to Galatians 4:4, this is also the time of Christ’s incarnation! http://biblehub.com/interlinear/ephesians/1-10.htm

Using the “expository writing” of the epistles rather than the “theological narrative” of the gospels as our basis for procuring accurate information from our interpretative methods, we find overwhelming evidence pertaining to the incarnation of Christ at the end of days. But there is more.

Christ’s Resurrection in the Last Days

The Septuagint, an early Greek translation of Hebrew Scripture, was heavily relied upon by the New Testament authors when quoting from the “Old Testament” (which in Hebrew is called “Tanakh”). That’s why it’s important to study the Septuagint. For instance, one of Isaiah’s prophecies says that “In the last days the mountain [Messiah] of God will appear and will be exalted above the hills [human powers], and all gentile nations will flow to it” (2:2). The Septuagint translates it as follows:

Εν ταις εσχαταις ημεραις εμφανες το ορος κυριου και ο οικος του θεου επ’ ακρων των ορεων και υψωθησεται υπερανω των βουνων και ηξουσιν επ’ αυτο παντα τα εθνη (Isaiah 2:2).

Once again, notice the allusion to the Messiah becoming apparent (εμφανες) in the last days (Εν ταις εσχαταις ημεραις). The word εσχαταις means last (from where we get the term “eschatology”), while the term ημεραις refers to chronological days (⬇️ see Isaiah 2.2 LXX ⬇️):

But something far more interesting is mentioned by Isaiah in chapter 2. If we drop down to Isaiah 2:19, we get a picture of the great tribulation or the great ordeal of the end times:

“Men will go into caves of the rocks, and into holes of the ground before the terror of the LORD, and before the splendor of His majesty, when He arises to make the earth tremble.”

Here’s the translation from the Septuagint:

Εισενεγκαντες εις τα σπηλαια και εις τας σχισμας των πετρων και εις τας τρωγλας της γης απο προσωπου του φοβου κυριου και απο της δοξης της ισχυος αυτου οταν αναστη θραυσαι την γην.

(⬇️ see Isaiah 2.19 LXX ⬇️):

The game changer in this verse is the Hebrew term “qum,” which is rendered in English as “arises.” Interestingly enough, the Septuagint translates it as αναστη (from the Greek ανάσταση, which in this context means resurrection). Compare the Greek terms *ἀναστῇ* (Isa. 2.19 LXX), *ἀναστήσεται* (Th Dan. 12.1 LXX), and *ἀναστήσονται* (Dan. 12.2 LXX), all of which refer to an eschatological *resurrection* from the dead! This gives us a completely different interpretation concerning the timing of the Lord’s (Messiah’s) resurrection, namely, as taking place in the end times. What’s more, Isaiah doesn’t just say that the Lord arises and then quietly goes away, but that he “arises to make the earth tremble”:

“Men will go into caves of the rocks, and into holes of the ground before the terror of the LORD, and before the splendor of His majesty, when He arises [from the dead] to make the earth tremble.”

There is support for this conclusion in Romans 15:12, a verse which is basically quoting from Isaiah. It reads:

“And again Isaiah says, ‘There shall come the root of Jesse, and he who arises to rule over the Gentiles, in him shall the Gentiles hope.”

The key phrase, here, is “he who arises to rule over the Gentiles.” Firstly, notice that he (Christ) who arises does so with the express purpose of imposing his will upon the Gentiles. That is to say, he arises and does not wait for a two-thousand-year interim to transpire; rather, he arises to rule as king over the nations. And since we know that Isaiah is referring to the last days, as mentioned earlier, it is appropriate to note how the Greek New Testament interprets Isaiah’s prophecy. Secondly, the original Greek New Testament uses the word ἀνιστάμενος (similar to the αναστη of the Septuagint) to define what Isaiah means by the word “arises.” The term ἀνιστάμενος is derived from the Greek ανάσταση, which means resurrection:

Καὶ πάλιν, Ἠσαΐας λέγει, Ἔσται ἡ ῥίζα τοῦ Ἰεσσαί, καὶ ὁ ἀνιστάμενος ἄρχειν ἐθνῶν. http://biblehub.com/interlinear/romans/15-12.htm

Thus, it’s perfectly clear that Isaiah’s use of the term “arises”—translated by both the Septuagint and Paul as “resurrection”—refers to the Messiah’s resurrection at the end of days.

Moreover, 1 Corinthians 15:23 tells of the sequence of resurrection events in the last days without any mention of a more-than-two-thousand-year gap between them; that is, between the resurrection of Christ and that of the rest of the dead. We know this because immediately following the resurrection sequence, the text concludes:

“Then comes the end, when He [Christ] delivers up the kingdom to the God and Father, when He has abolished all rule and all authority and power” (1 Corinthians 15:24).

But what do the previous verses say about the sequence of resurrection events just before the end comes? 1 Corinthians 15:20 says—in a timeless context—that “Christ is raised from the dead, the first fruits of those who are asleep.” Here’s the verse in Greek:

Νυνὶ δὲ Χριστὸς ἐγήγερται ἐκ νεκρῶν, ἀπαρχὴ τῶν κεκοιμημένων. http://biblehub.com/interlinear/1_corinthians/15-20.htm

But now the text becomes very specific in explaining the sequence of resurrection events that take place just prior to Christ’s kingly rule over “all authority and power” at the end of days. 1 Corinthians 15:23 tells us that the first-fruit [to be raised from the dead] is Christ; next, those who belong to Christ are resurrected, in his presence; “then comes the end” (1 Corinthians 15:24):

Ἀπαρχὴ Χριστός, ἔπειτα οἱ τοῦ Χριστοῦ, ἐν τῇ παρουσίᾳ αὐτοῦ (1 Corinthians 15:23). http://biblehub.com/interlinear/1_corinthians/15-23.htm

Jesus Dies for the Remission of Sins at the End of Days

As odd as this may sound, the letter to the Hebrews states:

“God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son” (Hebrews 1:1-2).

In the original Greek text, it is very clear that God speaks to mankind in the last days through his son, Jesus:

Ἐπ’ ἐσχάτου τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων, ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν Υἱῷ (Hebrews 1:2) http://biblehub.com/interlinear/hebrews/1-2.htm

The phrase Ἐπ’ ἐσχάτου τῶν ἡμερῶν literally means in the last days, or during the last age when time will reach its fullness or completion. The phrase ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν Υἱῷ means that God spoke to us by or in his Son. In the context of prophecy, the tense ἐλάλησεν (spoke) should be understood in a timeless context, or within the context of the entire human history, not just past history, and especially so because these words are said to be spoken in the last days.

But there is a verse that stands out among the others as the one that unequivocally and categorically points to Christ’s sacrifice and death in the end of the world. The first part of Hebrews 9:26 attempts to explain that Christ does not die over and over again, nor offer himself as a sacrifice repeatedly. The second part of the verse instills the epiphany, namely, that Christ is offered once and for all, “to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself,” and that this event takes place not at the beginning of the ages, but rather at the “consummation of the ages” (NASV), or “in the end of the world” (KJV):

Νυνὶ δὲ ἅπαξ ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων, εἰς ἀθέτησιν τῆς ἁμαρτίας, διὰ τῆς θυσίας αὐτοῦ πεφανέρωται (Hebrews 9:26). http://biblehub.com/interlinear/hebrews/9-26.htm

Translation:

“Now, however, once and for all [ἅπαξ] in the end [or completion] of the ages, [Jesus] is revealed [πεφανέρωται] to put away sin, by the sacrifice of himself.”

There is a key phrase within this sentence that undoubtedly places the timeline of this event “in the end of the world,” as opposed to any other time period, because it comprises the words ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων. The term ἐπὶ means “in,” while the word συντελείᾳ refers to “completion” or “end.” The final word of the phrase is αἰώνων, which refers to chronological time and means “ages” or centuries in the modern sense. Simply put, the phrase ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων means at the end or at the completion of all the ages. This is another way of saying at the final point of time, in the last days, in the end times, or “in the end of the world.” The exact same phrase (sinteleias tou aionos) is used in Matthew 24:3 to refer to “the end of the age" (or the end of the world), when Jesus is asked, “What will be the sign of Your coming, and of the end of the age?” http://biblehub.com/interlinear/matthew/24-3.htm So, what does Hebrews 9:26 imply? That Jesus is revealed once and for all at the completion of all the ages to die for our sins!

1 Peter 1:5 says, “For [the] salvation is ready to be revealed in the last time.” The Greek text reads:

Εἰς σωτηρίαν ἑτοίμην ἀποκαλυφθῆναι ἐν καιρῷ ἐσχάτῳ (1 Peter 1:5) http://biblehub.com/interlinear/1_peter/1-5.htm

Once more, we read of Christ’s salvation as being revealed (ἀποκαλυφθῆναι) “in the last time” (ἐν καιρῷ ἐσχάτῳ), otherwise known as the end-time (or the last days).

1 Peter 1:20 drives home the same biblical notion that Jesus is revealed for the first time in human history in the end times. First, it makes a point of contrast between the foreknowledge of Christ before the foundation of the world and his actual manifestation or revelation in the end times:

Προεγνωσμένου μὲν πρὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου, φανερωθέντος δὲ ἐπ’ ἐσχάτου τῶν χρόνων (1 Peter 1:20). http://biblehub.com/interlinear/1_peter/1-20.htm

The term φανερωθέντος means “is manifested,” or “made manifest,” or “shall appear.” http://biblehub.com/greek/phanero_thentos_5319.htm

The phrase ἐπ’ ἐσχάτου τῶν χρόνων is a reference to the last days or end times because it literally means “in the last times.” Also, note that the word “times” (χρόνων) is referring to chronological times, ages, or years in the modern sense. http://biblehub.com/greek/chrono_n_5550.htm

However, the most profound statement of all is found in Revelation 19:10. There, we are told in no uncertain terms that the witnesses of Christ, indeed the entire New Testament testimony pertaining to the birth, life, death, and resurrection of Jesus is based on “prophecy” given by the “pneuma” or spirit of God. And then we begin to comprehend how the authors of the New Testament witnessed Jesus. In retrospect, the New Testament authors are bearing witness to Jesus Christ in the exact same manner as Paul. Everyone would agree that Paul never saw Jesus in the flesh. Yet, due to his personal revelations, Paul knew more about Jesus than anyone else! Revelation 19:10 says:

Ἡ γὰρ μαρτυρία Ἰησοῦ ἐστιν τὸ πνεῦμα τῆς προφητείας.

English translation:

“Indeed, the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy.” http://biblehub.com/interlinear/revelation/19-10.htm

In other words, the biblical testimony of Jesus is a matter of prophecy, not history!

What Does Galatians 4.4 Mean When it Says that Jesus is “Born Under The Law”?

By Author Eli Kittim

Kittim’s Futurist Eschatology

As you may know, my unique view is that Jesus has not yet come to earth and that he’ll make his first appearance “once in the end of the world” (Heb. 9.26b KJV) or in the “last days” (Heb. 1.2) or “at the final point of time" (1 Pet. 1.20 NJB)! So, before attempting to expound on what being “born under the law” means, let me briefly explain how Gal. 4.4 closely ties into my unique futurist view. I will briefly refer to my interpretation of Gal. 4.4 so that you can understand the basis of my hermeneutic, but will not delve into it at length.

Interpreting the Implicit by the

Explicit

We won’t be able to mine the depths of Scripture if we don’t allow the Bible to tell us what something means. We are accustomed to imposing our own presuppositions on the text (called “eisegesis”). That’s why the best interpretation is no interpretation at all! For example, since there is a verbal agreement between Gal. 4.4 and Eph. 1.9-10 with respect to the phrase, “the fullness of time,” we should allow the more explicit passage in Ephesians to interpret and define the more implicit one in Galatians. Ephesians 1.9-10 (NASB) reads thusly:

“He [God] made known to us the mystery of

His will, according to His kind intention

which He purposed in Him with a view to an

administration suitable to the fullness of the

times, that is, the summing up of all things

in Christ, things in the heavens and things

on the earth.”

In this case, the key word that gives us the meaning of “the fullness of time” in Ephesians 1.10 is the Greek term ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι (“summing up”). It means “completion,” “end,” “summary” (see Lampe, A Patristic Greek Lexicon, [Oxford: Oxford University, 1961], p. 106)! The didactic or exegetical principle is as follows: if this *time-period* or *timeline* in Ephesians refers to the final consummation and the conclusion of all things or the *summing-up* (ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι) of all things in Christ, both in the heavens and on the earth, then the same exact phrase in Galatians 4.4, given that it refers to the same temporal context, must have an identical meaning. And, if that’s the case, then the phrase should refer to the consummation of the ages, not to 2,000 years ago! Therefore, we have erred linguistically by attributing this eschatological expression to the time of antiquity! We have thereby misinterpreted the Greek text.

Is the Law Still Applicable in

Modern Times?

Now that we understand Galatians 4.4 as a reference to future eschatology, the question arises: how can Gal. 4.4 be a reference to modern times? In other words, how is the “law” still applicable in our day and age? More specifically, how do we interpret Gal. 4.4 when it says that God’s Son is “born under the law”? It’s a very good question. And it was asked by a member of the Eli of Kittim Bible Exegesis Group on Facebook.

Here’s the answer. The first thing to realize is that Galatians 4.4 is in fact referring to the Mosaic Law and depicts Christ’s birth as if it takes place under the law (ὑπὸ νόμον). The use of this often repeated term (νόμον) in the Bible ensures us that Gal. 4.4 is not referring to the natural law. It’s also important to understand that the Mosaic Law, including the 10 commandments, was not only intended for the Jews, it was meant to be the standard of morality for the entire human race. And we would be judged by it accordingly until the arrival of grace in Christ Jesus. So why are we told that Jesus is “born under the law”? The next verse tells us why:

“in order to redeem those who were under

the law, so that we might receive adoption

as children (v. 5).”

Has the Law Been Abolished or

Not?

Now, the Greek term νόμον is exclusively referring to the Moral Law (not the ceremonial or civic law). So, the Law was given to instruct us as to what is good and evil. However, according to the New Testament, only the *death* of Jesus can *abolish* the Law. [1] Nothing else. Therefore, if Jesus has not yet died, the law remains in effect. And if in fact Jesus has not yet died, then he will be born under the law in the fullness of time. Paul tells us that the “law of commandments contained in ordinances” was “abolished” (Gk. katargeo, which means “discarded” or “nullified”) by the *death* of Jesus (Eph. 2.14-15). However, the past tense “was” may be an English mistranslation because the temporal value of this verse hangs on the Greek verb καταργήσας, which does not necessarily refer to past history. But even with regard to translations that presuppose the past-tense “was” as the correct translation of καταργήσας (perhaps due to the past-tense ποιήσας [having made] from the previous verse [v. 14]), nevertheless the *time-of-the-action* still seems to be in a transhistorical context. I’ve mentioned numerous times that Stanley E. Porter, a top Hellenistic Greek linguist, assures us that “temporal values (past, present, future) are not established in Greek by use of the verbal aspects (or tense-forms) alone” (see Porter, Idioms of the Greek New Testament [2nd edn; Sheffield: Sheffield Academic, 1999], p. 25)! In other words, past tenses do not necessarily imply past events. Isaiah 53 is a perfect example. Despite all of the past tenses, it is obviously a prophecy that Isaiah is writing about, at least from a Christian hermeneutical standpoint! So, returning to our main topic, according to Paul, only the death of Jesus can truly abolish the Law!

Paul’s Christ is Not Yet

Remember that in other places Paul suggests that the evidence for Jesus’ ransom is still future:

“Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be

testified in due time” (1 Tim. 2.6).

In 1 Cor. 15.8 (NRSV) Paul declares that Christ appeared to him “as to one untimely born,” that is, as if Paul were born before the time of Christ. And in Romans 5.6 the grammatical structure of the sentence appears in a transhistorical context and doesn’t necessarily warrant a reference to history. Paul employs the word ἔτι which implies not yet. So when Paul says that Christ “died” (απέθανεν), his death is in this transhistorical context! This is further confirmed by Paul’s use of the phrase κατά καιρόν, which means “at the right time” (cf. 1 Tim. 2.6), or at “the appropriate time,” in the sense that Christ died at some unspecified time of human history:

Ἔτι γὰρ ⸃ Χριστὸς ὄντων ἡμῶν ἀσθενῶν ἔτι

κατά καιρὸν ὑπὲρ ἀσεβῶν ἀπέθανεν (Rom.

5.6)!

Translation (NASB):

“For while we were still helpless, at the right

time Christ died for the ungodly.”

Similarly, Luke 17.30 also suggests that the Son of Man has not yet been revealed!

Only Jesus’ Death Can Abolish the

Law

Technically speaking, even the New Covenant (New Testament) is not ratified until the *death* of Jesus:

“This cup is the new covenant in my blood,

which is poured out for you” (Luke 22.20).

Hebrews 9.16-17 suggests that without the death of the testator the will (i.e., “testament”) is not yet in effect.

Hebrews 8:13 reads:

“When He said, ‘A new

covenant,’ He has made the

first obsolete. But whatever is

becoming obsolete and

growing old is ready to

disappear.”

We’re also told that the condemnation of the Law (the charges brought forth against us) would be nullified or cancelled as a legal code by Christ’s *death* (cf. Col. 2.13-14).

Galatians 3:23 reads:

“But before faith came, we were kept in

custody under the law, being shut up to

the faith which was later to be revealed.”

Galatians 3:24 explains:

“Therefore the Law has become our tutor

to lead us to Christ, that we may be

justified by faith.”

Thus, Galatians 3:25 declares:

“But now that faith has come, we are no

longer under a tutor [Law].”

Conclusion

It’s absolutely clear from the New Testament that without the *death* of Christ the Law is still in effect, as well as the charges levelled against humanity by its moral code. In other words, if Christ hasn’t died, then those who are reborn in Christ are retroactively *saved-by-faith-in-the-promises-of-God* but are not fully and literally saved yet. That’s why the Holy Spirit is given to regenerated human beings as a deposit, not as a full payment or reward:

“[He] set his seal of ownership on us, and

put his Spirit in our hearts as a deposit,

guaranteeing what is to come (2 Cor. 1.22

NIV).”

Nevertheless Paul seemingly says that he believes that Christ is able to protect what he has “entrusted to Him until that day” when he fulfills it and presumably *dies* for him:

“For this reason I also suffer these things,

but I am not ashamed; for I know whom I

have believed and I am convinced that He

is able to guard what I have entrusted to

Him until that day” (2 Tim. 1.12 NASB).

And when is that day? It is the day of Christ’s sacrifice and atoning death that transpires in “the fullness of time” (Gal 4.4; Eph. 1.9-10)! This eschatological motif is present throughout the New Testament: from Rev. 12.5 to Rev. 19.10 to Rev. 22.7 to 1 Jn 2.28, we constantly find the theme that Christ will appear “once at the consummation of the ages” to *die* for sin (Heb. 9.26b NASB), which is also confirmed in Eph. 1.10 and Gal. 4.4!

Therefore, if Jesus hasn’t died yet, we are all still under the Law. And thus if he appears “once for all at the end of the age” (Heb. 9.26b NRSV), then he, too, is “born under the law.”

Footnotes

[1] In using the term “abolish” I

don’t mean the eradication of

the moral standard completely.

Rather, I mean to abolish the

law as a soteriological means;

as a way to salvation, as well as

a means of condemnation.

Academic Bias on the Web

By Author Eli Kittim

——-

I recently submitted a version of the following post in the *Group for New Testament Studies* (on Facebook) but, regrettably, the administrators did not approve it. Yet, given the validity of the Greek exegesis, it certainly deserves serious academic consideration. This is indicative of academic discrimination based on their own personal biases.

——-

2 Principles of Biblical Hermeneutics Should Guide our Investigation

Two principles of Biblical hermeneutics should be considered foundational. Exegetes must interpret the implicit by the explicit and the narrative by the didactic. In practical terms, the *NT epistles* and other more *explicit* and *didactic* portions of Scripture must clarify the implicit meaning and significance of the gospel literature, which, by the way, is not biographical but *theological* in nature, as Bultmann, Crossan, Lüdemann, Licona, Crossley, Robert L. Thomas and F. David Farnell, Dennis MacDonald, Robert Gundry, and Thomas L. Brodie, among others, have clearly demonstrated!

——-

This *Greek exegesis,* translated straight from the text itself, challenges the classical Christian interpretation, which is primarily founded upon historical-fiction narratives. This *Greek exegesis* not only complements the Jewish messianic expectations but it also fits perfectly with the end-time messianic death & resurrection themes alluded to in the Old Testament (see e.g. Isa. 2.19; Dan. 12.1-2)! In short, both the Hebrew and Christian Scriptures seem to say the exact same thing, namely, that the Messiah will appear “once for all at the end of the age” (Heb. 9.26b)!

——-

*The Future Christ* Greek Exegesis

According to the New Testament’s explicit and didactic portions of Scripture, Christ is *born* when time reaches its fullness or completion, expressed in the apocalyptic phrase τὸ πλήρωμα τοῦ χρόνου:

ὅτε δὲ ἦλθεν τὸ πλήρωμα τοῦ χρόνου,

ἐξαπέστειλεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν υἱὸν αὐτοῦ,

γενόμενον ἐκ γυναικός (Gal. 4.4).

According to the principle of expositional constancy, the chronological time period known as “the fullness of time” (τὸ πλήρωμα τοῦ χρόνου) in Gal. 4.4 is defined in Eph. 1.9-10 as the consummation of the ages (cf. Heb. 9.26b NASB):

γνωρίσας ἡμῖν τὸ μυστήριον τοῦ θελήματος

αὐτοῦ, κατὰ τὴν εὐδοκίαν αὐτοῦ ἣν

προέθετο ἐν αὐτῷ εἰς οἰκονομίαν τοῦ

πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν,

ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι τὰ πάντα ἐν τῷ

Χριστῷ, τὰ ἐπὶ τοῖς οὐρανοῖς καὶ τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς

γῆς· ἐν αὐτῷ.

The fullness of time (τοῦ πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν) in Ephesians refers to the *summing up* (ανακεφαλαιώσασθαι) of all things in Christ, things in heaven and things on earth! Thus, according to Gal. 4.4, Christ is born during the consummation of the ages (i.e. in the end-times; cf. Lk 17.30; Heb. 1.2; Rev. 12.5; 19.10d; 22.7, 10, 18, 19)!

The initial appearance of Christ is also rendered as taking place “at the final point of time” in 1 Pet. 1.20 NJB:

προεγνωσμένου μὲν πρὸ καταβολῆς

κόσμου, φανερωθέντος δὲ ἐπ’ ἐσχάτου τῶν

χρόνων.

Further textual confirmation comes by way of Heb. 9.26b, which reads:

νυνὶ δὲ ἅπαξ ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων εἰς

ἀθέτησιν ἁμαρτίας διὰ τῆς θυσίας αὐτοῦ

πεφανέρωται.

NRSV translation:

“he has appeared once for all at the end of

the age to remove sin by the sacrifice of

himself.”

A historical-grammatical study of the phrase ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων demonstrates that it refers to “the end of the age” (i.e. the end of the world; cf. Mt. 13.39-40, 49; 24.3; 28.20; Dan. 12.4 LXX; see also G.W.H. Lampe [ed.], “A Patristic Greek Lexicon” [Oxford: Oxford U, 1961], p. 1340).

——-

Conclusion

The assumed historicity of Jesus needs to be revisited, given that his only visitation is set to occur at the end of the age! Accordingly, this exegesis argues that the epistles are the primary keys to unlocking the future timeline of Christ’s only visitation. To demonstrate the validity of this argument, we must get back to NT Greek in order to focus on questions of authorial intent. To simply dismiss, ignore, or disregard this exegesis is tantamount to academic dishonesty!

Most people, in fact, will not take the trouble in

finding out the truth, but are much more inclined

to accept the first story they hear.

(Thucydides, History of the Peloponnesian War)

——-

Response

I received the following Facebook notification a week or so after submitting a version of the aforementioned post in the Group for New Testament studies:

Your pending post was declined from

Group for New Testament Studies by an

admin. See their feedback.

When I clicked on it, the reason given for the rejection of the post was as follows:

Group Rules that were violated

2 Keep it Scholarly:

NT, early Christianity, & discussion of the

field ok. Posts that assume/attempt to

impose a Christian perspective will not be

approved & commenting in this way will

result in a warning & then removal.

So, I wrote back to them . . .

Open letter

——-

I have sent a copy of this letter to both administrators because I didn’t know who was responsible for dismissing my post.

——-

You declined my post, citing a violation of group rules in which one should not impose a Christian perspective. I will get to that in a moment.

——-

As for its scholarship, the exegesis is unquestionably precise & accurate! Incidentally, I’m proficient in New Testament Greek (I’m also a native Greek speaker).

——-

Now, as to your claim, that I supposedly imposed a Christian perspective, it is quite laughable and borders on the absurd. I not only am NOT imposing a “Christian” interpretation, but, as a matter of fact, I’m NOT imposing ANY interpretation whatsoever!

I’m merely TRANSLATING what the text is ACTUALLY SAYING about C H R I S T! I did NOT invent or “impose” the Greek phrase τὸ πλήρωμα τοῦ χρόνου in relation to Christ’s birth: the Greek text *actually* SAYS that (Gal. 4.4)!

I did not personally invent or “impose” an interpretation of the phrase τοῦ πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν as a timeline referring to the consummation of the ages: the Greek text itself *actually* SAYS that in Eph. 1.10!

——-

Have you ever read about NT linguistics, such as the work of Stanley E. Porter? Have you ever studied any scholarly New Testament lexicons or dictionaries, such as the EDNT, BAGD, ANLEX, TDNT, LSJ? They would all validate and substantiate my translations. As I emphasized earlier, this is a question of translation, not interpretation, and certainly NOT “Christian interpretation,” as you erroneously deduced!

——-

I neither invented nor “imposed” a “Christian interpretation” on 1 Pet. 1.20. It is quite laughable to make such a claim. The text itself is referring to the “appearance” of Christ ἐπ’ ἐσχάτου τῶν χρόνων or “at the final point of time,” as the scholarly NJB itself translates it.

Similarly, I neither imposed, invented, nor interpreted the Greek expression ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων in Heb. 9.26b. It is in the Greek text itself, and it is in reference to Christ, as any reputable *textual scholar* would unequivocally concur. In fact, a concordance study demonstrates that the textual reference is to “the end of the world” (KJV), “the culmination of the ages” (NIV), “the consummation of the ages” (NASB), or “the end of the age” (NRSV), as all other scholarly translations indicate (cf. Mt. 13.39-40, 49; 24.3; 28.20; Dan. 12.4 LXX; see also G.W.H. Lampe [ed.], “A Patristic Greek Lexicon” [Oxford: Oxford U, 1961], p. 1340). By the way, Lampe’s Lexicon is considered to be a scholarly book of the highest order.

Once again, this is NOT an “interpretation,” and certainly NOT an imposition of a Christian perspective, but rather——**wait for it**——A _ G R E E K _ T R A N S L A T I O N! Therefore, your decision not to publish the post is completely bogus and misinformed!

Sorry about the capitals, but it needs to be highlighted, given that your commentary is not within scholarly and academic parameters!

——-

I really couldn’t care less what actions you take as a result of this letter. And I certainly lost all respect for your credibility and your group.

——-

I have never seen any academic commentary to equal this one for downright biased and unscrupulous disregard of evidence. It is tantamount to academic dishonesty!

——-

The Two Witnesses of Revelation 11

Eli Kittim

The Two Witnesses are Anointed with Power

In Rev. 11:4, the two witnesses on earth are said to be “the two olive trees” of the Lord. This verse is based on the Old Testament:

“These are the two anointed ones who stand

by the Lord of the whole earth.”

— Zechariah 4:14

The term “Messiah” (Gk. Christos) is derived from the Hebrew word mashiach, which means “anointed one.” So, Zechariah 4:14 cannot be talking about anyone else except the Messiah. As I will demonstrate, these two anointed witnesses could be none other than Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit. And these two are one! The Holy Spirit is often called the “Spirit of Jesus Christ” (Phil. 1:19), the “Spirit of Jesus” (Acts 16:7), or “the Spirit of His Son” (Gal. 4:6). We know that the Messiah is the “anointed one” (Dan. 9:26). But the Holy Spirit is “anointed” as well (1 Jn 2:20, 27), and anoints Jesus with power (see Lk 4:18; Acts 10:38). The anointing takes place when Jesus and the Holy Spirit become one (during Jesus’ baptism)! It is Jesus’ rebirth, so to speak, when the Holy Spirit enters him and anoints him with power (Lk 3:22; cf. Acts 2:1-4)!

As for those thinkers who take issue with this view, claiming that the two witnesses are probably Enoch and Elijah who never died, there are three problems with their theory. First, regardless of whether a biblical character died or not, scripture makes it clear that you only live once (Heb. 9:27); there is no reincarnation. A reincarnation of Enoch or Elijah is therefore out of the question. Second, neither Enoch nor Elijah were the anointed Messiah. Third, both of these fictional characters are “types” who represent and foreshadow the Messiah. Notice the specific typology that is presented in Revelation 11 which typifies the two witnesses’ unique relation and connection to Jesus: the two witnesses are said to prophesy in the exact same place where Jesus supposedly lived, and they will die in the exact same city where Jesus allegedly died. I think you can guess the rest of the script: “But after … three … days a breath of life from God entered them, and they stood up on their feet” (Rev. 11:11). Just like Jesus, they’ll be miraculously raised from the dead after 3 days!

Moreover, Rev. 11:6 says that the two witnesses have tremendous authority (ἐξουσίαν) over heaven and earth to do as they please. However, only Jesus has that kind of authority. No one else! Jesus says: “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me” (Mt. 28:18):

Ἐδόθη μοι πᾶσα ἐξουσία ἐν οὐρανῷ καὶ ἐπὶ

τῆς γῆς ·

Both Jesus and the Holy Spirit are called Witnesses

What is more, the two witnesses’ assignment is to bear witness to the truth (μαρτυρίαν; Rev. 11:7). The two persons of the Godhead who bear witness (μαρτυρήσει) to the truth on earth are Jesus and the Holy Spirit (see Jn 15:26; 18:37; Rom. 8:16; Heb. 10:15 [Μαρτυρεῖ/bears witness]). Case in point. First John 5:6 mentions the witness of the Spirit——namely, that God comes in the flesh——using the symbols of “water and blood” which represent the divinity and humanity of Jesus, thus indicating that he’s both God and man:

“This man, Jesus the Messiah, is the one

who came by water and blood—not with

water only, but with water and with blood.

The Spirit is the one who verifies this,

because the Spirit is the truth.”

Then, 1 John 5:7-8 goes on to explain that “these three [witnesses] are one”:

“For there are three witnesses

[μαρτυροῦντες] — the Spirit, the water, and

the blood—and these three are one.”

— 1 John 5:7-8

And 1 Jn 5:9 tells us that the content of this prophetic witness (ἡ μαρτυρία τοῦ θεοῦ) concerns the coming of the Son of God in human form at some point in human history. The Greek verb ἐλθὼν (came) is not referring to the time of action, but rather to the Christological prophecy which is supposed to take place according to the scriptures (cf. 1 Cor. 15:3-4). So the testimony of the two witnesses of Revelation 11 is about the parousia, or the coming of Jesus to this earth! Interestingly enough, Rev. 1:5 calls Jesus “the faithful witness” (ὁ μάρτυς, ὁ πιστός). This is reiterated in Rev. 3:14 where Jesus is “the faithful and true witness.” Both Jesus and the Holy Spirit are said to be God’s two witnesses, and these two are one! Since no one else except God can do these extraordinary miracles (e.g. fire-breathing, controlling the weather & the sea [cf. Mk 4:39], causing plagues; Rev. 11:5-6), and given that the language of the Greek New Testament is pointing to the authority, anointing, and witness of Jesus and the Holy Spirit, there can be little doubt as to who these two witnesses are.

First Comes Christ; Then Comes the Antichrist

The sequence of end-time events also reveals New Testament parallels and verbal agreements that are consistent with the notion that the Messiah will come first, followed by the antichrist. Notice the same sequence in Rev. 11:7:

“And when they have finished their witness,

the beast that comes up out of the abyss

will make war with them and overcome

them and kill them.”

This is essentially the same sequence that we find in 2 Thess. 2. The restrainer must first be taken out of the way before the lawless one can be revealed (2 Thess. 2:7-8). In other words, the restrainer must be removed before the antichrist can appear on the world stage. This same motif is repeated in Rev. 12:3-4 (italics mine):

“a great red dragon, with seven heads and

ten horns [representing the Antichrist and

the final world empire] … stood before the

woman who was about to give birth, so that

when she bore her child he might devour it.”

The way Rev. 12:5 is described, it’s as if it gives us Jesus’ birth, resurrection, and ascension, minus his death (which is alluded to in verse 4):

“She gave birth to a male child, one who is to

rule all the nations with a rod of iron, but her

child was caught up to God and to his

throne.”

So, in Rev. 12, the male child is born first, and then the red dragon kills it. It’s the exact same sequence in Rev. 6. First comes the peaceful white horseman “holding a bow” (representing the covenant; see Gen. 9:13 LXX) and wearing the Stephanos crown, which is typically worn by victors in Christ (Jas. 1:12; 2 Tim. 4:8; 1 Pet. 5:4; Rev. 2:10; 4:4), and then comes the red horse which triggers World War III (Rev. 6:3). We find the exact same sequence in Rev. 11:7. First come the two witnesses, and then comes the beast out of the abyss to kill them. This is the antichrist who must come after Christ. It’s the exact same motif in 2 Thess. 2:7-8 in which the restrainer must be killed before the antichrist can appear.

So, there’s a running theme throughout the New Testament which repeats the same end-time sequence in all these narratives, namely, the idea that Christ comes first, followed by the Antichrist! Thus, Christ’s coming is imminent (it can happen at any time)! But how is all this possible if Christ already died two thousand years ago? It’s possible because the gospels are not historical documents that correspond to real historical events. They’re theological narratives that are largely based on the Old Testament. By contrast, the epistles, which are the more explicit and didactic portions of scripture, say that Christ will die “once for all” (Gk. ἅπαξ hapax) “at the end of the age” (Heb. 9:26b), a phrase which consistently refers to the end of the world (cf. Mt. 13:39-40, 49; 24:3; 28:20). Similarly, just as Heb. 1:2 says that the physical Son speaks to humanity in the “last days,” 1 Pet. 1:20 (NJB) demonstrates the eschatological timing of Christ’s *initial* appearance by saying that he will be “revealed at the final point of time.” In other words, Revelation 6:2, 11:3, 12:5, and 19:11 all refer to the first coming of Jesus at the end of days!

Eli Kittim Reddit

📕 Link in bio 📕

🎓 biography 🎓

Eli Kittim is a Bible scholar and an award-winning author of the Nonfiction Book, The Little Book of Revelation: The First Coming of Jesus at the End of Days. He has published articles in numerous prestigious journals and websites, including Rapture Ready, the Journal of Higher Criticism, The American Journal of Psychoanalysis, the Aegean Review (which has published work by Jorge Luis Borges, Lawrence Durrell, Truman Capote, and Alice Bloom) , and the International Poetry Review (a literary translation journal that has published work by Philip Sherrard), among others. Eli Kittim has studied Biblical Studies at Koinonia Institute and Liberty University's John W. Rawlings School of Divinity. He was born in Athens, Greece, but now lives in New York.