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The Heresy Of Modalistic Monarchianism Is Alive And Well

The Heresy of Modalistic Monarchianism is Alive and Well
By Author Eli Kittim
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What is Modalistic Monarchianism?
Modalistic Monarchianism (aka *Oneness Theology* or Modalism) is a late 2nd and 3rd century theological doctrine that maintains the deity of Christ while emphasising the *oneness* of God. In contrast to Trinitarianism, which depicts the Godhead as three distinct persons coexisting in one being, modalistic monarchianism defines God as a single person. This theological position is related to “patripassianism” and “Sabellianism,” which hold similar views. It has been considered a doctrinal heresy since the early period of the Christian Church.
The term “Modalistic Monarchianism” means that God is not three but *one* person who operates under various “manifestations” or “modes,” such as Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. According to this theological position, the complete Godhead dwells in Jesus insofar as his incarnation is concerned. This view therefore ascribes the actions of the *Father* and the *Son* to various *modes*, such as the differences that exist between God’s “transcendence” (which is completely independent of the material universe, beyond being and nonbeing) and God’s incarnation or immanence (i.e. his manifestation in the physical world). Accordingly, the Holy Spirit is not viewed as a distinct entity but rather as a mode of operation of the spirit of God.
It seems as if the Modalistic Monarchians were trying to reconcile the trinitarian concept of the New Testament (NT) with the monotheistic Shema creed in the Torah, which states that “God, the LORD is one" (Deut. 6.4). Modalistic Monarchians accept the inspiration of the Old Testament and therefore believe that Jesus is the manifestation of Yahweh on earth. But they do not worship the Father or the Holy Spirit; only Jesus Christ.
Three modern adherents of this view are Oneness Pentecostalism (aka Jesus Only movement or Apostolic, Jesus' Name Pentecostalism), the World Mission Society Church of God (the relatively new South Korean religious movement), and T. D. Jakes, the bishop of The Potter's House Church (a non-denominational American megachurch).
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Is Jesus really God the Father and God the Holy Spirit?
Given that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are considered to be titles of the one God, not depictions of distinct persons, *Oneness Pentecostals*, for example, maintain that they fulfil Christ’s commandment in Mt. 28.19 to baptize in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit by doing so *only* in the name of Jesus. In their defence, they cite Acts 4.12 in which Jesus is the *only* name given in the NT “by which we must be saved.” Acts 4.11-12 reads:
This Jesus is ‘the stone that was rejected by
you, the builders; it has become the
cornerstone. There is salvation in no one
else, for there is no other name under
heaven given among mortals by which we
must be saved.’
However, just because “there is no other name . . . by which we must be saved” does not mean that the Father and the Holy Spirit do not exist! That directly contradicts the grammatical “point of view” of the first person, second person, and third person *personal pronouns* in the NT text.
For example, Jesus is NOT the name of the Father or of the Holy Spirit. On the contrary, Jesus repeatedly refers to the Holy Spirit not in the first person but in the *3rd person*. He calls the Holy Spirit ἐκεῖνος——meaning “He” (Jn. 16.13-14)——as another person that is totally DISTINCT from himself. Jesus says:
But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he
will guide you into all the truth” (John
16.13).
Obviously Jesus is not talking about himself but about a separate entity that is called the “Holy Spirit.”
Jesus also repeatedly speaks of the Father in the *3rd person* as a separate and distinct person from himself. Jesus says:
For I did not speak on my own, but the
Father who sent me commanded me to say
all that I have spoken (John 12.49).
Obviously Jesus is NOT the Father, otherwise this modalistic theology would have us believe that Jesus sent himself, commands himself, prays to himself, and talks to himself, while baldly lying to his disciples about an imaginary father (whom he calls “Abba” [Mark 14.36]) who doesn’t really exist. According to this view, Jesus is psychotic or worse. In other words, Jesus is either a lunatic or a liar. So, Modalistic Monarchianism directly contradicts and distorts the NT authors' original language and intended meanings. Therefore, Oneness Theology is completely bogus and misinformed!
1 Jn. 2.22 condemns modalism as an aberration:
This is the antichrist, the one who denies
the Father and the Son.
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Bible Researcher Eli Kittim is the Goodreads Award-Winning Author of the 5-Star Christian-Nonfiction Book, “The Little Book of Revelation.”
——-
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It’s a Retelling of the Jesus Story: A Biblical Study of the Sequence of End-time Events.
——-
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——-
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——-
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What Does Galatians 4.4 Mean When it Says that Jesus is “Born Under The Law”?
By Author Eli Kittim
Kittim’s Futurist Eschatology
As you may know, my unique view is that Jesus has not yet come to earth and that he’ll make his first appearance “once in the end of the world” (Heb. 9.26b KJV) or in the “last days” (Heb. 1.2) or “at the final point of time" (1 Pet. 1.20 NJB)! So, before attempting to expound on what being “born under the law” means, let me briefly explain how Gal. 4.4 closely ties into my unique futurist view. I will briefly refer to my interpretation of Gal. 4.4 so that you can understand the basis of my hermeneutic, but will not delve into it at length.
Interpreting the Implicit by the
Explicit
We won’t be able to mine the depths of Scripture if we don’t allow the Bible to tell us what something means. We are accustomed to imposing our own presuppositions on the text (called “eisegesis”). That’s why the best interpretation is no interpretation at all! For example, since there is a verbal agreement between Gal. 4.4 and Eph. 1.9-10 with respect to the phrase, “the fullness of time,” we should allow the more explicit passage in Ephesians to interpret and define the more implicit one in Galatians. Ephesians 1.9-10 (NASB) reads thusly:
“He [God] made known to us the mystery of
His will, according to His kind intention
which He purposed in Him with a view to an
administration suitable to the fullness of the
times, that is, the summing up of all things
in Christ, things in the heavens and things
on the earth.”
In this case, the key word that gives us the meaning of “the fullness of time” in Ephesians 1.10 is the Greek term ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι (“summing up”). It means “completion,” “end,” “summary” (see Lampe, A Patristic Greek Lexicon, [Oxford: Oxford University, 1961], p. 106)! The didactic or exegetical principle is as follows: if this *time-period* or *timeline* in Ephesians refers to the final consummation and the conclusion of all things or the *summing-up* (ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι) of all things in Christ, both in the heavens and on the earth, then the same exact phrase in Galatians 4.4, given that it refers to the same temporal context, must have an identical meaning. And, if that’s the case, then the phrase should refer to the consummation of the ages, not to 2,000 years ago! Therefore, we have erred linguistically by attributing this eschatological expression to the time of antiquity! We have thereby misinterpreted the Greek text.
Is the Law Still Applicable in
Modern Times?
Now that we understand Galatians 4.4 as a reference to future eschatology, the question arises: how can Gal. 4.4 be a reference to modern times? In other words, how is the “law” still applicable in our day and age? More specifically, how do we interpret Gal. 4.4 when it says that God’s Son is “born under the law”? It’s a very good question. And it was asked by a member of the Eli of Kittim Bible Exegesis Group on Facebook.
Here’s the answer. The first thing to realize is that Galatians 4.4 is in fact referring to the Mosaic Law and depicts Christ’s birth as if it takes place under the law (ὑπὸ νόμον). The use of this often repeated term (νόμον) in the Bible ensures us that Gal. 4.4 is not referring to the natural law. It’s also important to understand that the Mosaic Law, including the 10 commandments, was not only intended for the Jews, it was meant to be the standard of morality for the entire human race. And we would be judged by it accordingly until the arrival of grace in Christ Jesus. So why are we told that Jesus is “born under the law”? The next verse tells us why:
“in order to redeem those who were under
the law, so that we might receive adoption
as children (v. 5).”
Has the Law Been Abolished or
Not?
Now, the Greek term νόμον is exclusively referring to the Moral Law (not the ceremonial or civic law). So, the Law was given to instruct us as to what is good and evil. However, according to the New Testament, only the *death* of Jesus can *abolish* the Law. [1] Nothing else. Therefore, if Jesus has not yet died, the law remains in effect. And if in fact Jesus has not yet died, then he will be born under the law in the fullness of time. Paul tells us that the “law of commandments contained in ordinances” was “abolished” (Gk. katargeo, which means “discarded” or “nullified”) by the *death* of Jesus (Eph. 2.14-15). However, the past tense “was” may be an English mistranslation because the temporal value of this verse hangs on the Greek verb καταργήσας, which does not necessarily refer to past history. But even with regard to translations that presuppose the past-tense “was” as the correct translation of καταργήσας (perhaps due to the past-tense ποιήσας [having made] from the previous verse [v. 14]), nevertheless the *time-of-the-action* still seems to be in a transhistorical context. I’ve mentioned numerous times that Stanley E. Porter, a top Hellenistic Greek linguist, assures us that “temporal values (past, present, future) are not established in Greek by use of the verbal aspects (or tense-forms) alone” (see Porter, Idioms of the Greek New Testament [2nd edn; Sheffield: Sheffield Academic, 1999], p. 25)! In other words, past tenses do not necessarily imply past events. Isaiah 53 is a perfect example. Despite all of the past tenses, it is obviously a prophecy that Isaiah is writing about, at least from a Christian hermeneutical standpoint! So, returning to our main topic, according to Paul, only the death of Jesus can truly abolish the Law!
Paul’s Christ is Not Yet
Remember that in other places Paul suggests that the evidence for Jesus’ ransom is still future:
“Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be
testified in due time” (1 Tim. 2.6).
In 1 Cor. 15.8 (NRSV) Paul declares that Christ appeared to him “as to one untimely born,” that is, as if Paul were born before the time of Christ. And in Romans 5.6 the grammatical structure of the sentence appears in a transhistorical context and doesn’t necessarily warrant a reference to history. Paul employs the word ἔτι which implies not yet. So when Paul says that Christ “died” (απέθανεν), his death is in this transhistorical context! This is further confirmed by Paul’s use of the phrase κατά καιρόν, which means “at the right time” (cf. 1 Tim. 2.6), or at “the appropriate time,” in the sense that Christ died at some unspecified time of human history:
Ἔτι γὰρ ⸃ Χριστὸς ὄντων ἡμῶν ἀσθενῶν ἔτι
κατά καιρὸν ὑπὲρ ἀσεβῶν ἀπέθανεν (Rom.
5.6)!
Translation (NASB):
“For while we were still helpless, at the right
time Christ died for the ungodly.”
Similarly, Luke 17.30 also suggests that the Son of Man has not yet been revealed!
Only Jesus’ Death Can Abolish the
Law
Technically speaking, even the New Covenant (New Testament) is not ratified until the *death* of Jesus:
“This cup is the new covenant in my blood,
which is poured out for you” (Luke 22.20).
Hebrews 9.16-17 suggests that without the death of the testator the will (i.e., “testament”) is not yet in effect.
Hebrews 8:13 reads:
“When He said, ‘A new
covenant,’ He has made the
first obsolete. But whatever is
becoming obsolete and
growing old is ready to
disappear.”
We’re also told that the condemnation of the Law (the charges brought forth against us) would be nullified or cancelled as a legal code by Christ’s *death* (cf. Col. 2.13-14).
Galatians 3:23 reads:
“But before faith came, we were kept in
custody under the law, being shut up to
the faith which was later to be revealed.”
Galatians 3:24 explains:
“Therefore the Law has become our tutor
to lead us to Christ, that we may be
justified by faith.”
Thus, Galatians 3:25 declares:
“But now that faith has come, we are no
longer under a tutor [Law].”
Conclusion
It’s absolutely clear from the New Testament that without the *death* of Christ the Law is still in effect, as well as the charges levelled against humanity by its moral code. In other words, if Christ hasn’t died, then those who are reborn in Christ are retroactively *saved-by-faith-in-the-promises-of-God* but are not fully and literally saved yet. That’s why the Holy Spirit is given to regenerated human beings as a deposit, not as a full payment or reward:
“[He] set his seal of ownership on us, and
put his Spirit in our hearts as a deposit,
guaranteeing what is to come (2 Cor. 1.22
NIV).”
Nevertheless Paul seemingly says that he believes that Christ is able to protect what he has “entrusted to Him until that day” when he fulfills it and presumably *dies* for him:
“For this reason I also suffer these things,
but I am not ashamed; for I know whom I
have believed and I am convinced that He
is able to guard what I have entrusted to
Him until that day” (2 Tim. 1.12 NASB).
And when is that day? It is the day of Christ’s sacrifice and atoning death that transpires in “the fullness of time” (Gal 4.4; Eph. 1.9-10)! This eschatological motif is present throughout the New Testament: from Rev. 12.5 to Rev. 19.10 to Rev. 22.7 to 1 Jn 2.28, we constantly find the theme that Christ will appear “once at the consummation of the ages” to *die* for sin (Heb. 9.26b NASB), which is also confirmed in Eph. 1.10 and Gal. 4.4!
Therefore, if Jesus hasn’t died yet, we are all still under the Law. And thus if he appears “once for all at the end of the age” (Heb. 9.26b NRSV), then he, too, is “born under the law.”
Footnotes
[1] In using the term “abolish” I
don’t mean the eradication of
the moral standard completely.
Rather, I mean to abolish the
law as a soteriological means;
as a way to salvation, as well as
a means of condemnation.

Are We Currently Experiencing the Ten Plagues of Egypt?
By Author Eli Kittim
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It’s possible that Old Testament allegories may be precursors of future events. If we examine and compare the series of judgments that Moses inflicted upon *Egypt* (which represents the “nations”) to the final judgments in the book of Revelation, we’ll notice that both descriptions appear to exhibit identical events taking place. In our modern comparison it isn’t so much the presence of any one of the following plagues that is significant but rather the combination of all ten simultaneously. If we pay close attention, we’ll see that what is currently happening around the world is reminiscent of the Biblical Plagues of Egypt:
1 Locusts: Ex. 10.1–20 (cf. Rev. 9.3). The terrifying prospect and food shortages currently happening in Africa, the Middle East, and Asia are the result of extremely large and unprecedented populations of locusts, which Is unlike anything in our lifetime!
2 Thunderstorm of hail and fire: Ex. 9.13–35 (cf. Rev. 16.21). Mammoth tornadoes, giant cyclones, extremely violent hurricanes, massive earthquakes, huge typhoons, and fantastic superstorms have recently wiped out large human populations, coupled with large-scale conflagrations, unprecedented and unique wildfires that have devastated and literally destroyed incredibly large-areas of real estate in California and Australia, among other places.
3 Pestilence (includes animals) Ex. 9.1-7 (cf. Rev 6.8). Pestilences, such as those that come from animals (e.g. coronavirus that comes from bats), are plagues of one form or another. This includes plagues and pandemics the likes of which have never been seen before. For ex, just look at how fast the coronavirus pandemic started from China and spread around the world, causing worldwide economic shutdown and killing hundreds of thousands of people!
4 Water to Blood: Ex. 7.14–24 (cf. Rev. 8.8; 16.3-4). Consider the great earthquakes and powerful tsunamis that have spread terror of late, such as the 2004 magnitude 9.1-9.3 M that unleashed a super tsunami that killed approximately 230k ppl in 14 countries, “making it one of the deadliest natural disasters in recorded history” (2004 Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami; Wiki), literally turning water into blood . . .
5 Death of firstborn: Ex. 11.1–12.36. The deaths of our loved ones (our first-born love [including but not limited to the mysterious coronavirus illness claiming children]) during this horrendous pandemic can be seen as another pestilence coming from the Biblical arsenal of plagues. And since “Egypt” represents all the nations (Gentiles) in the Bible, it would not be inappropriate to call it a pandemic that continues to kill our most treasured possessions. Not to mention the fact that we have the highest abortion rate in human history, with almost 11 million abortions worldwide this year!
6 Flies Ex. 8.20-32. The fourth *plague* of Egypt was of creatures capable of harming people and livestock. The Torah uses the term ‘arob (עָרוֹב "mixture" or "swarm"). That’s the exact same term used by the modern media to refer to the *locusts* that are currently devastating vast areas of the earth (including agriculture and food supplies) and causing famine and great terror in their wake. Not to mention the recent sightings of an increase in Asian giant hornets (aka murder hornets) that are extremely dangerous for bee populations, and may signal the end times.
7 Frogs: Ex. 7.25–8.15 (cf. Rev. 16.13). The super storms and hurricanes have produced one of the most spectacular frog and toad breeding seasons seen in decades in places like Florida, just as we see frog population explosions in places like Vermont, the Netherlands, Jersey (British Isles), and other places . . .
8 Lice or gnats: Ex. 8.16-19. There’s a surge in black fly populations, mosquitoes, and biting gnats that are killing livestock, and deer, and have forced nature center closure in Arkansas, for ex. The super lice surge is now found In 48 US states, and has caught public attention. They have developed a resistance to the pesticides and are growing in great numbers.
9 Boils or Sores: Ex. 9.8–12 (cf. Rev. 16.2). Boils are caused by bacteria. Today, nearly 50,000 men, women and children are dying each and every day from emerging infectious diseases caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi or parasites.
10 Darkness for three days: Ex. 10.21–29 (cf. Rev. 16.10). This is a plague that is yet to come. We have briefly experienced its effects during several blackouts in the US. But this particular darkness is related to the end times:
“For at that time there will be great suffering, such as has not been from the beginning of the world until now, no, and never will be” (Mt. 24.21).
It is associated with the Day of the Lord:
“Immediately after the suffering of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light; the stars will fall from heaven, and the powers of heaven will be shaken” (Mt. 24.29).
And it lasts 3 symbolic days because that’s how long the “great tribulation” will last, namely, three and a half years (cf. Dan. 7.25; 9.27; 12.7; Rev. 11.2-3; 12.6, 14; 13.5).
It is probably caused by a nuclear war that is triggered in the Middle East (Rev. 9.14) and spills over into Israel (cf. Ezek. 38.1-9, 14-16):
“This shall be the plague with which the Lord will strike all the peoples that wage war against Jerusalem: their flesh shall rot while they are still on their feet; their eyes shall rot in their sockets, and their tongues shall rot in their mouths” (Zech. 14.12).
Therefore, we can draw parallels between the judgments of Exodus and those of Revelation since they are strikingly similar! Could it be mere coincidence? I think not!
——-
Conclusion
If we look around our world today, the *increase* and *intensity* of these “plagues” has definitely multiplied exponentially in the last few decades in comparison with previous times. If we also acknowledge what prophecy scholars are telling us, namely, that the *restoration* of Israel represents the greatest fulfillment of Biblical end-time prophecy (e.g. Dan. 9.24-27; Ezek. 38.8), which was also known to one of the greatest scientists that ever lived, Isaac Newton, then Jesus’ saying becomes all the more remarkable and comprehensible when taking into account these prophetic circumstances:
“this generation will not pass away until all these things take place” (Mt. 24.34).
Most prophecy scholars believe that Jesus is referring to the *last generation* associated with the restoration of Israel. According to Psalm 90.10, a generation is equal to 70-80 years. Thus, 2020, when the “birth pangs” (Mt. 24.8) began, lies at the midpoint of that prophesied generation (2018-2028)! Which raises a significant question: are we living in the end times?
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Another significant prophetic marker is Matthew 24.6-8, a passage that is often interpreted as describing world wars, which first began in the 20th century:
“And you will hear of wars and rumors of wars; see that you are not alarmed; for this must take place, but the end is not yet. For nation will rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom, and there will be famines and earthquakes in various places: all this is but the beginning of the birth pangs.”
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Another important sign of the end times is the prophesied restoration of Israel, whose rebirth heralds the coming reign of the messiah. Daniel’s 70 weeks prophecy——if its starting date is 14 May 1948 (the founding of the modern state of Israel)——culminates in or around 2020. Perhaps the ending of the Mayan Calendar (2012), Malachiae’s “Prophecy of the Popes” (2013) that seems to end with the current pope, according to the experts, and the unique Blood Moon Tetrad of 2014-15 that fell on Biblical feasts and holy days are all pointing to the current crisis and the beginning of a new world order!
——-
Are these signs pointing to increasing turbulence in the future? And are they indicators or markers of a coming apocalypse? Almost all Bible prophecy experts answer that question with a resounding *Yes* (including this author)! In fact, I’ve been predicting that something disastrous would happen by 2020 for a good ten years now. And I was right!

A Critical Review of the So-Called “Bible-Wheel” method of Biblical Interpretation
By Author Eli Kittim
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Like the Zohar in the Kabbalah, the “Bible-Wheel” approach is a kind of Hebraic “Gematria” or “Isopsephy” that corresponds to the letters of the Hebrew alphabet but does not take into consideration several important Biblical factors. For instance, it doesn’t consider the fact that the New Testament uses a different alphabet (i.e. Greek), nor does it seriously consider the historical-grammatical context of the New Testament books. The Bible Wheel’s premise is that “the Hebrew alphabet is established in the alphabetically structured passages of the Old Testament, most notably Psalm 119 that praises God's Word from Aleph to Tav, from beginning to end.” This “is a circular presentation of the Bible . . . by rolling up the traditional list of the sixty-six books like a scroll on a spindle wheel of twenty-two spokes.” Here’s how it works:
“The structure consists of a circular matrix of sixty-six Cells on a Wheel of twenty-two Spokes. The sixty-six Cells form three wheels within the Wheel called Cycles. Each Cycle spans a continuous sequence of twenty-two books as follows: With the completion of the Bible Wheel, we now have a fully unified view of the whole Bible as a symmetrical, mathematically structured two-dimensional object. The increase from the traditional one-dimensional list of books to the two-dimensional Bible Wheel immediately reveals a host of unanticipated correlations between the three books on each spoke with each other and the corresponding Hebrew Letter” (according to biblewheel.com).
This is more of an “intuitive” rather than a scholarly approach to the Bible that is devoid of historical, grammatical, hermeneutical, and contextual considerations. For example, the premise that the entire Biblical structure of the 66 canonical books is grounded exclusively in the Hebrew alphabet “from Aleph to Tav, from beginning to end” is debunked by Christ’s self-disclosure and promulgation of the Divine Name explicitly through the Greek alphabet:
ἐγὼ τὸ Ἄλφα καὶ τὸ Ὦ, ὁ πρῶτος καὶ ὁ ἔσχατος, ἡ ἀρχὴ καὶ τὸ τέλος (SBLGNT).
Translation:
“I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End” (Rev. 22.13 NRSV).
There is absolutely no correlation, here, to the Aleph and Tav or to the Hebrew alphabet. On the contrary, Christ reveals the divine name in the language of the Greeks by declaring “I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End.” The alpha and omega are the first and last letters of the Greek writing system, that is to say, the beginning and the end of the Greek alphabet!
What is more, the Bible wheel practice is based not on scholarly criteria (i.e. detailed exegesis/authorial intent) but rather on apparent coincidences (e.g. mathematical, alphabetic, Hebraic, etc.), sometimes explained through a matrix that we might call “synchronicity”:
//Synchronicity is a concept, first introduced by analytical psychologist Carl Jung, which holds that events are "meaningful coincidences" if they occur with no causal relationship yet seem to be meaningfully related. During his career, Jung furnished several different definitions of the term, defining synchronicity as an "acausal connecting (togetherness) principle;" "meaningful coincidence;" "acausal parallelism;” and as a "meaningful coincidence of two or more events where something other than the probability of chance is involved.// (Wiki).
Therefore, although it may have some symbolic preliminary merits, the Bible wheel practice is obviously not a credible or scholarly approach to Biblical investigation.
The notion that the 66 Books of the Bible can be put on an apparent wheel where each book directly coincides with some other book based on certain numerical, alphabetical, and Hebraic correlations seems to be an outlandish explanation! This practice, including its pictorial representation, is somewhat reminiscent of the medieval divination practices of occultism, such as Kabbalah, Cartomancy (i.e. Tarot card reading) and Numerology:
“Numerology is any belief in the divine or mystical relationship between a number and one or more coinciding events. It is also the study of the numerical value of the letters in words, names, and ideas. It is often associated with the paranormal, alongside astrology and similar divinatory arts” (Wiki).
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The idea behind the Bible-Wheel approach is that Biblical history repeats itself: that time is cyclical. What is the axiom of this interpretive method? As It Was, So Shall It Be… It, therefore, presupposes that there are thematic parallels (and secret codes) between the earlier books of the Bible and the later ones. Similar methods have been proposed by authors Perry Stone and Jonathan Cahn. Thus, with the exception of some trivial and peripheral similarities, I don’t see any major thematic affinities, say, between Jeremiah 17 and Revelation 2, as per the Bible-wheel interpretation.
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Let’s Look at Rev. 2
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The Church of Ephesus has a lot going for it. It endures with patience, does not tolerate evil, exposes falsehood, and bears much for the sake of Christ (Rev. 2.2-3). No such praise is ever mentioned in Jer. 17 in relation to to the Jews. Furthermore, despite some set backs, God promises certain divine rewards in Rev. 2 that are not mentioned in Jer. 17, namely, offering the faithful the crown of life (Rev. 2.10) as well as eternal life: “Whoever conquers will not be harmed by the second death” (Rev. 2.11), etc.
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Similarly, the Church of Pergamum, despite its shortcomings, is holding fast. Even though it’s located within Satan’s domain, so to speak, it’s holding on to Christ and has not denied the faith (Rev. 2.13).
Here, as before, Christ offers the divine manna and a mystic precious stone to the over-comers (Rev. 2.17). Nothing of the kind is ever referenced in Jer. 17.
——-
Also, the Church in Thyatira is not doing too bad either. Christ is aware of its works—such as “love, faith, service, and patient endurance” (Rev. 2.19). And although some have incorporated certain false teachings, there are others within the church that are blameless and whom Christ does not rebuke at all (Rev. 2.24)! He simply urges them to hold on til he comes (Rev. 2.25). Christ maintains that anyone who endures to the end will be granted “authority over the nations” (v. 26) and will also receive “the morning star” (v.28).
——-
Now Let’s Look at Jer. 17
——-
By contrast, Jeremiah 17 is casting an aspersion on the kingdom of Judah. Its proemium is as follows:
“The sin of Judah is written with an iron pen; with a diamond point it is engraved on the tablet of their hearts, and on the horns of their altars” (Jer. 17.1 NRSV).
Next, there are a number of caveats that culminate in God’s vow to eternally disinherit the Jews from his promises:
“By your own act you shall lose the heritage that I gave you, and I will make you serve your enemies in a land that you do not know, for in my anger a fire is kindled that shall burn forever” (v. 4). Then God recites a summary of the Blessings and Curses of the covenant (vv. 5-9). Finally, Jeremiah exalts the Lord and offers up his own defense that he is upright, and so on. Here, the text instructs the people of Judah to keep certain commandments, such as “the sabbath day” (v. 24), something that does not occur in Rev. 2. The chapter ends with Blessings and Curses in the form of rewards and punishments (vv. 26-27).
Incidentally, the theme of God who “searches minds and hearts,” in Rev. 2.23, is a common trope that can be found in various places in the Bible and is not exclusive to Jeremiah 17.10 (e.g., 1 Ch. 28.9; 29.17; Ps. 7.9; Prov. 17.3; Ecc. 3.18; Jer. 11.20; Rom. 8.27), as proponents of this view suggest.
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Conclusion
Unlike Rev. 2, nowhere is there any mention of eternal life or of surviving a second death in Jer. 17. Moreover, no one is offered any rewards of authority over nations, or any glory, for that matter, such as that implied by the so-called “morning star.” In fact, there’s no one blameless in Jer. 17, nor does any praise come from God concerning anyone whatsoever. Even the prophet himself has to plead for mercy and proclaim his own self-righteousness. Besides, there are so many other differences.
Jeremiah is written in *Hebrew* and heavily redacted probably by the scribe Baruch and later generations of Deuteronomists, while Revelation is written exclusively in *Greek* most likely by a single author. The former is probably from the 6th century BCE, while the latter dates from ca. 95 CE. One is written to a Jewish nation, the kingdom of Judah, just prior to the Babylonian deportation, while the other is written to the predominantly Gentile Churches in Asia Minor. One is written in Palestine, the other in Greece! So where are the parallels?
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