Who Are The Two Beasts Of Revelation 13?

Who Are the Two Beasts of Revelation 13?

By Author Eli Kittim

A “Beast” Represents An Empire

In the Bible, a “beast” represents a kingdom or an empire (see Dan. 7.3 ff.). Dan. 7.3 reports that “four great beasts came up out of the sea, different from one another.” In Dan. 7.4 we read: “The first was like a lion and had eagles' wings. Then, as I watched, its wings were plucked off, and it was lifted up from the ground and made to stand on two feet like a human being; and a human mind was given to it.” So, although it initially appears as an empire, it ends up looking like a human being, probably signifying its leader.

•••••

The Danielic narrative continues. Then a second beast appears, but this one is not depicted as a human being. Dan. 7.5 reads: “Another beast appeared, a second one, that looked like a bear. It was raised up on one side, had three tusks in its mouth among its teeth and was told, ‘Arise, devour many bodies!’ “ This is certainly not a human being. Dan. 7.6 goes on to describe a third “beast” that is also nonhuman, given that it has four heads: “After this, as I watched, another appeared, like a leopard. The beast had four wings of a bird on its back and four heads; and dominion was given to it.” The “dominion” that “was given to it” signifies that it’s some type of a political, economic, or military power and certainly not an individual!

A “Horn” Signifies A King

Dan. 7.7 clearly demonstrates that these beasts represent “kingdoms” or “empires” because it also mentions that the fourth beast had *ten horns,* signifying “ten kings” (see Rev. 17.12: “the ten horns that you saw are ten kings”). Daniel 7.7 declares:

“After this I saw in the visions by night a fourth beast, terrifying and dreadful and exceedingly strong. It had great iron teeth and was devouring, breaking in pieces, and stamping what was left with its feet. It was different from all the beasts that preceded it, and it had ten horns.”

It’s in Dan. 7.8 that a little horn (a king) appears, in addition to the 10 earlier horns, and this king is said to be a human being. But he arises out of the fourth beast (or empire). Dan. 7.17 gives us the exact interpretation:

“As for these four great beasts, four kings shall arise out of the earth.” However, Dan. 7.23-24 is even more precise by referring to the fourth beast as “a fourth kingdom on earth”:

“As for the fourth beast, there shall be a fourth kingdom on earth that shall be different from all the other kingdoms; it shall devour the whole earth, and trample it down, and break it to pieces. As for the ten horns, out of this kingdom ten kings shall arise, and another shall arise after them. This one shall be different from the former ones, and shall put down three kings.”

Thus, in Daniel 7, a “beast” represents a kingdom, while a “horn” signifies a king. Of course, the last king of the final empire will be the one we call the “Antichrist,” who will rule on earth for 3 and a half years (i.e. during the time of the Great Tribulation):

“He shall speak words against the Most High, shall wear out the holy ones of the Most High, and shall attempt to change the sacred seasons and the law; and they shall be given into his power for a time, two times, and half a time” (Dan. 7.25).

The First Beast of Revelation 13

Revelation 13.1 reads:

“And I saw a beast rising out of the sea, having ten horns and seven heads” (cf. Rev. 12).

This is obviously not a description of a human being but of the final empire on earth (cf. Dan. 2; Rev. 12; 17.9-15; for further details on why this is the final empire on earth, see https://www.instagram.com/p/BYr5b5HgBq1/?igshid=1ml02os1or44x Click “more” to view the successive empires).

Revelation 13.3 goes on to say:

“One of its heads seemed to have received a death-blow, but its mortal wound had been healed. In amazement the whole earth followed the beast.”

Question: is the whole earth following a king or a kingdom? It’s quite possible that the Bible has conflated the leader with his actual kingdom, as in Dan. 7.4 where the first beast is transformed into a human being. The evidence for this is that Rev. 13.3 uses the personal pronoun “his” (Gk. αὐτοῦ) in the phrase, “his mortal wound was healed,” which is also found elsewhere in the chapter.

And even though a “beast” is typically an empire, and a “horn” a king, nevertheless this chapter suggests that the so-called first “beast” is both a person and an empire.

•••••

The beast will be granted authority for 42 months (Rev.13.5). Rev 13.7 suggests that the beast will persecute the “saints,” war against them and come out victorious, creating a religious apartheid in the process, and that authority will be given to him over every nation and every language on the planet for three and a half years. Rev. 13.3 suggests that the beast’s resurrection from the dead is what stirs great amazement and causes “the whole earth” to follow him, and ultimately to worship him (v. 8).

The Second Beast of Revelation 13

First off, it’s important to note that, unlike the first beast, the second beast is never explicitly referred to as a person (e.g. “he”) in the Greek text. No wonder that the NRSV descriptions of the second beast are always translated as “it.” And given that we are told that “It exercises all the authority of the first beast on its behalf” (Rev. 13.12), it’s reasonable to assume that it represents some kind of political/religious entity. This explains why it performs the socioeconomic and military functions as well as the public relations of the first beast. And since we know that Biblically a beast represents an empire, it seems quite plausible that the second beast is a reference to a nation. Rev. 13.11 refers to the second beast as ἄλλο θηρίον (Gk. “another beast”), which is suggestive of another nation. A further distinction is that the second beast came “out of the earth,” in contrast to the first beast that arose “out of the sea.”

•••••

So, let’s review the descriptions of the second beast. Rev. 13.11 talks of the appearance of another beast. This one came out of the Earth (not the Sea); “it had two horns like a lamb and it spoke like a dragon.”

This could be a reference to an ecclesiastical monarchy, suggested by the phrase “two horns like a lamb,” that might be governed by 2 heads of state (i.e. 2 horns/kings, such as the 2 heads of the Vatican, Pope Francis and President Bertello [the Holy See and the Vatican City State], for example). In Rev 13.12, this enigmatic second “beast,” which is probably a political/religious institution, makes the inhabitants of the earth to worship the first beast due to the latter’s miraculous resurrection. And the second beast also makes great signs, so that even fire descends from the sky. Although this could be in the category of the miraculous, it’s probably a reference to a nuclear holocaust. At any rate, Rev 13.14 suggests that this second “beast” deceives the entire world through great signs and insists that an *image* be made to the first beast who was killed by some type of weapon yet miraculously came back from the dead. And, in Rev. 13.15, the *image* was animated and took on lifelike qualities. Those who didn’t worship it were to be killed. What is more, the second beast causes all to have a mark on their right hand or forehead (v. 16), “so that no one can buy or sell who does not have the mark, that is, the name of the beast or the number of its name” (v. 17). Rev 13.18 goes on to say:

“Here is wisdom. He who has understanding, vote the number of the beast; it’s a number of a human being, and his number is 600, 60, 6” (my translation).

Who Is the First Beast?

Obviously, the reference in Rev. 13.18 is to the first beast, not the second. And the solution to the riddle of his identity may be associated with the time-period in which he’s *voted into office,* that is, the time-frame during which his political party gains ascendancy. Thus, the triple-digit 666 could be a cryptic code of this particular time-period which might be deciphered and decrypted only through a sort of retrograde inversion or reversal: (i.e. “999”):

The year 1999 seven month,

From the sky will come a great King of terror:

To bring back to life the great King of Angolmois, (the Mongols),

Before after Mars to reign by good luck

(Century X, Quatrain 72)

“Nostradamus' most famous doomsday prediction warns future generations of a King of Terror descending from the skies in July 1999. This holy terror could be linked to the Third Antichrist,” writes John Hogue, an authority on Nostradamus! It is beyond the scope of this paper to describe who the Antichrist might be, but I will briefly mention what most eschatological studies indicate.

•••••

We are accustomed to think of the European Union as the Revived Roman Empire of Bible Prophecy, with a focus primarily on the Western rather than the Eastern leg of this Empire, which was supplanted by Russia after the fall of Byzantium in 1453. The Septuagint, an early Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible, uses the phrase "Ρως Μοσοχ"----which seemingly stands for Ρωσία (the Greek word for Russia) and Μόσχα (the Greek term for Moscow)----in Ezek. 38.2 to identify the country from the far north that will head up a large coalition against Israel in the latter days (see Ezek. 38.15-16). Moreover, according to Josephus, a first-century scholar and historian, "the land of Magog," which is also mentioned in Ezek. 38.2, refers to the Scythians (Ant., bk. I, 6), and thus represents contemporary Russia. And although the "chief prince" of this nation is not explicitly mentioned as the Antichrist (cf. "the troops of the prince who is to come," Dan. 9.26), Ezek. 38 is quite suggestive in this regard, while clearly pointing to the Eastern leg of the Roman Empire! Most Bible prophecy experts agree that this is a reference to Russia. Therefore, the point I made earlier about 666 being a cryptic inversion of 999 has a great deal to do with the current leader of Russia, Vladimir Putin, who actually came to power in 1999!

What Is the Second Beast?

According to the undermentioned symbols of Bible prophecy, the second beast with “two horns like a lamb,” which is traditionally associated with the false prophet of Revelation, appears to represent the Vatican City-State, a Country in Europe and the headquarters of the Roman Catholic Church! Rev 17.1-6 reads:

“Then one of the seven angels who had the seven bowls came and said to me, ‘Come, I will show you the judgment of the great whore who is seated on many waters, with whom the kings of the earth have committed fornication, and with the wine of whose fornication the inhabitants of the earth have become drunk [the sacramental wine of the Eucharist?].’ So he carried me away in the spirit into a wilderness, and I saw a woman sitting on a scarlet beast that was full of blasphemous names, and it had seven heads and ten horns. The woman was clothed in purple and scarlet, and adorned with gold and jewels and pearls, holding in her hand a golden cup full of abominations and the impurities of her fornication; and on her forehead was written a name, a mystery: ‘Babylon the great, mother of whores and of earth's abominations.’ And I saw that the woman was drunk with the blood of the saints and the blood of the witnesses to Jesus [martyrs who were killed as heretics by the Catholic Church?].”

The symbolism of drunkenness “with the blood of the saints” coupled with the golden cup in her hand suggest not only the perpetual sacramental wine of the Eucharist but also the innumerable saints that were burned or killed as heretics by the Catholic Church. The specific colored attire of verse 4 also matches the Vatican dress code: for example, the purple cassocks worn by Bishops and honorary prelates, as well as the scarlet cassocks worn by members of the College of Cardinals. Moreover, the commingling with the kings of the earth (v. 2) is suggestive of the union of church and state in former times when the Catholic Church flaunted its power in Europe and controlled both countries and kings! She is also said to be “adorned with gold and jewels and pearls” (v. 4), an obvious description of the papal tiara (crown) that is adorned with gold and is heavily bejewelled with sapphires, rubies, emeralds, and other precious stones. As you can see, the specific symbols generated in Revelation 17 match perfectly with those of the Holy Mother Church, a term that is often used to refer to the Roman Catholics Church!

Conclusion

Studies in Biblical eschatology suggest that the second beast is the so-called “false prophet” of Rev. 16.13:

“And I saw three foul spirits like frogs coming from the mouth of the dragon, from the mouth of the beast, and from the mouth of the false prophet.”

This verse would strongly indicate that the false prophet represents a religious figure/institution. And the previous symbolism strongly suggests that it might be the Roman Catholic Church. After all, the term Antichrist doesn’t only mean “against Christ”; it also means “in place of Christ.” Similarly, the term Vicar of Christ (Lat. Vicarius Christi) means that the Pope is the”earthly representative of Christ” or acts “in place of Christ” (i.e. Antichrist)! Also, the second beast appears to be in collaboration with the first beast in controlling the world for 42 months (during the time of the Great Tribulation), as well as the one that causes all to take the latter’s “mark,” while killing all those who refuse. The Bible warns that those who take the mark of the beast will be eternally condemned (Rev. 14:9-10). So, the coded trilogy of 666 appears to be a reference to a person, to wit, the so-called first beast of Revelation 13. Astoundingly, most comprehensive Bible-prophecy studies suggest that this figure is most likely the leader of Russia!

•••••

So the so-called “whore” (πόρνη) of Revelation 17.1 (the second beast) appears to be the Papacy, which is sitting on the first beast, while the “scarlet beast that was full of blasphemous names, and . . . had seven heads and ten horns” (Rev. 17.3) represents the final superpower on earth, namely, Russia!

(For further details on this point, see https://www.instagram.com/p/BqRDTWHgOIQ/?igshid=fzgzeal7j94t

Click “more” to view the 10 kings).

•••••

However, later in the narrative, Revelation 17 reveals that Russia, despite its alliance, will nevertheless turn on the Vatican and destroy the Papacy, probably after it has accomplished its mission of promoting its leader:

“The beast and the ten horns you saw will hate the prostitute. They will bring her to ruin and leave her naked; they will eat her flesh and burn her with fire” (Rev. 17.16).

•••••

So, let’s answer this paper’s original question.

. . . . .

Question: Who Are the Two Beasts of Revelation 13?

Answer: The first Beast probably represents Vladimir Putin and Russia, while the second Beast seemingly represents the Pope (Vatican) and the Roman Catholic Church!

What Does Galatians 4.4 Mean When it Says that Jesus is “Born Under The Law”?

By Author Eli Kittim

Kittim’s Futurist Eschatology

As you may know, my unique view is that Jesus has not yet come to earth and that he’ll make his first appearance “once in the end of the world” (Heb. 9.26b KJV) or in the “last days” (Heb. 1.2) or “at the final point of time" (1 Pet. 1.20 NJB)! So, before attempting to expound on what being “born under the law” means, let me briefly explain how Gal. 4.4 closely ties into my unique futurist view. I will briefly refer to my interpretation of Gal. 4.4 so that you can understand the basis of my hermeneutic, but will not delve into it at length.

Interpreting the Implicit by the

Explicit

We won’t be able to mine the depths of Scripture if we don’t allow the Bible to tell us what something means. We are accustomed to imposing our own presuppositions on the text (called “eisegesis”). That’s why the best interpretation is no interpretation at all! For example, since there is a verbal agreement between Gal. 4.4 and Eph. 1.9-10 with respect to the phrase, “the fullness of time,” we should allow the more explicit passage in Ephesians to interpret and define the more implicit one in Galatians. Ephesians 1.9-10 (NASB) reads thusly:

“He [God] made known to us the mystery of

His will, according to His kind intention

which He purposed in Him with a view to an

administration suitable to the fullness of the

times, that is, the summing up of all things

in Christ, things in the heavens and things

on the earth.”

In this case, the key word that gives us the meaning of “the fullness of time” in Ephesians 1.10 is the Greek term ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι (“summing up”). It means “completion,” “end,” “summary” (see Lampe, A Patristic Greek Lexicon, [Oxford: Oxford University, 1961], p. 106)! The didactic or exegetical principle is as follows: if this *time-period* or *timeline* in Ephesians refers to the final consummation and the conclusion of all things or the *summing-up* (ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι) of all things in Christ, both in the heavens and on the earth, then the same exact phrase in Galatians 4.4, given that it refers to the same temporal context, must have an identical meaning. And, if that’s the case, then the phrase should refer to the consummation of the ages, not to 2,000 years ago! Therefore, we have erred linguistically by attributing this eschatological expression to the time of antiquity! We have thereby misinterpreted the Greek text.

Is the Law Still Applicable in

Modern Times?

Now that we understand Galatians 4.4 as a reference to future eschatology, the question arises: how can Gal. 4.4 be a reference to modern times? In other words, how is the “law” still applicable in our day and age? More specifically, how do we interpret Gal. 4.4 when it says that God’s Son is “born under the law”? It’s a very good question. And it was asked by a member of the Eli of Kittim Bible Exegesis Group on Facebook.

Here’s the answer. The first thing to realize is that Galatians 4.4 is in fact referring to the Mosaic Law and depicts Christ’s birth as if it takes place under the law (ὑπὸ νόμον). The use of this often repeated term (νόμον) in the Bible ensures us that Gal. 4.4 is not referring to the natural law. It’s also important to understand that the Mosaic Law, including the 10 commandments, was not only intended for the Jews, it was meant to be the standard of morality for the entire human race. And we would be judged by it accordingly until the arrival of grace in Christ Jesus. So why are we told that Jesus is “born under the law”? The next verse tells us why:

“in order to redeem those who were under

the law, so that we might receive adoption

as children (v. 5).”

Has the Law Been Abolished or

Not?

Now, the Greek term νόμον is exclusively referring to the Moral Law (not the ceremonial or civic law). So, the Law was given to instruct us as to what is good and evil. However, according to the New Testament, only the *death* of Jesus can *abolish* the Law. [1] Nothing else. Therefore, if Jesus has not yet died, the law remains in effect. And if in fact Jesus has not yet died, then he will be born under the law in the fullness of time. Paul tells us that the “law of commandments contained in ordinances” was “abolished” (Gk. katargeo, which means “discarded” or “nullified”) by the *death* of Jesus (Eph. 2.14-15). However, the past tense “was” may be an English mistranslation because the temporal value of this verse hangs on the Greek verb καταργήσας, which does not necessarily refer to past history. But even with regard to translations that presuppose the past-tense “was” as the correct translation of καταργήσας (perhaps due to the past-tense ποιήσας [having made] from the previous verse [v. 14]), nevertheless the *time-of-the-action* still seems to be in a transhistorical context. I’ve mentioned numerous times that Stanley E. Porter, a top Hellenistic Greek linguist, assures us that “temporal values (past, present, future) are not established in Greek by use of the verbal aspects (or tense-forms) alone” (see Porter, Idioms of the Greek New Testament [2nd edn; Sheffield: Sheffield Academic, 1999], p. 25)! In other words, past tenses do not necessarily imply past events. Isaiah 53 is a perfect example. Despite all of the past tenses, it is obviously a prophecy that Isaiah is writing about, at least from a Christian hermeneutical standpoint! So, returning to our main topic, according to Paul, only the death of Jesus can truly abolish the Law!

Paul’s Christ is Not Yet

Remember that in other places Paul suggests that the evidence for Jesus’ ransom is still future:

“Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be

testified in due time” (1 Tim. 2.6).

In 1 Cor. 15.8 (NRSV) Paul declares that Christ appeared to him “as to one untimely born,” that is, as if Paul were born before the time of Christ. And in Romans 5.6 the grammatical structure of the sentence appears in a transhistorical context and doesn’t necessarily warrant a reference to history. Paul employs the word ἔτι which implies not yet. So when Paul says that Christ “died” (απέθανεν), his death is in this transhistorical context! This is further confirmed by Paul’s use of the phrase κατά καιρόν, which means “at the right time” (cf. 1 Tim. 2.6), or at “the appropriate time,” in the sense that Christ died at some unspecified time of human history:

Ἔτι γὰρ ⸃ Χριστὸς ὄντων ἡμῶν ἀσθενῶν ἔτι

κατά καιρὸν ὑπὲρ ἀσεβῶν ἀπέθανεν (Rom.

5.6)!

Translation (NASB):

“For while we were still helpless, at the right

time Christ died for the ungodly.”

Similarly, Luke 17.30 also suggests that the Son of Man has not yet been revealed!

Only Jesus’ Death Can Abolish the

Law

Technically speaking, even the New Covenant (New Testament) is not ratified until the *death* of Jesus:

“This cup is the new covenant in my blood,

which is poured out for you” (Luke 22.20).

Hebrews 9.16-17 suggests that without the death of the testator the will (i.e., “testament”) is not yet in effect.

Hebrews 8:13 reads:

“When He said, ‘A new

covenant,’ He has made the

first obsolete. But whatever is

becoming obsolete and

growing old is ready to

disappear.”

We’re also told that the condemnation of the Law (the charges brought forth against us) would be nullified or cancelled as a legal code by Christ’s *death* (cf. Col. 2.13-14).

Galatians 3:23 reads:

“But before faith came, we were kept in

custody under the law, being shut up to

the faith which was later to be revealed.”

Galatians 3:24 explains:

“Therefore the Law has become our tutor

to lead us to Christ, that we may be

justified by faith.”

Thus, Galatians 3:25 declares:

“But now that faith has come, we are no

longer under a tutor [Law].”

Conclusion

It’s absolutely clear from the New Testament that without the *death* of Christ the Law is still in effect, as well as the charges levelled against humanity by its moral code. In other words, if Christ hasn’t died, then those who are reborn in Christ are retroactively *saved-by-faith-in-the-promises-of-God* but are not fully and literally saved yet. That’s why the Holy Spirit is given to regenerated human beings as a deposit, not as a full payment or reward:

“[He] set his seal of ownership on us, and

put his Spirit in our hearts as a deposit,

guaranteeing what is to come (2 Cor. 1.22

NIV).”

Nevertheless Paul seemingly says that he believes that Christ is able to protect what he has “entrusted to Him until that day” when he fulfills it and presumably *dies* for him:

“For this reason I also suffer these things,

but I am not ashamed; for I know whom I

have believed and I am convinced that He

is able to guard what I have entrusted to

Him until that day” (2 Tim. 1.12 NASB).

And when is that day? It is the day of Christ’s sacrifice and atoning death that transpires in “the fullness of time” (Gal 4.4; Eph. 1.9-10)! This eschatological motif is present throughout the New Testament: from Rev. 12.5 to Rev. 19.10 to Rev. 22.7 to 1 Jn 2.28, we constantly find the theme that Christ will appear “once at the consummation of the ages” to *die* for sin (Heb. 9.26b NASB), which is also confirmed in Eph. 1.10 and Gal. 4.4!

Therefore, if Jesus hasn’t died yet, we are all still under the Law. And thus if he appears “once for all at the end of the age” (Heb. 9.26b NRSV), then he, too, is “born under the law.”

Footnotes

[1] In using the term “abolish” I

don’t mean the eradication of

the moral standard completely.

Rather, I mean to abolish the

law as a soteriological means;

as a way to salvation, as well as

a means of condemnation.

Goodreads Contest Winner! #award_winning_book

——-

*The Little Book of Revelation* was a winner in a Double Decker Books contest on Goodreads, a few years back. As a result, Double Decker Books and five other blogs promoted this book for several weeks. They included a book description, an author bio, editorial reviews, and buying links.

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Here are some of the links:

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Ink Spell Reviews

The Little Book of Revelation: The First Coming of Jesus at the End of Days

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Are We Currently Experiencing the Ten Plagues of Egypt?

By Author Eli Kittim

——-

It’s possible that Old Testament allegories may be precursors of future events. If we examine and compare the series of judgments that Moses inflicted upon *Egypt* (which represents the “nations”) to the final judgments in the book of Revelation, we’ll notice that both descriptions appear to exhibit identical events taking place. In our modern comparison it isn’t so much the presence of any one of the following plagues that is significant but rather the combination of all ten simultaneously. If we pay close attention, we’ll see that what is currently happening around the world is reminiscent of the Biblical Plagues of Egypt:

1 Locusts: Ex. 10.1–20 (cf. Rev. 9.3). The terrifying prospect and food shortages currently happening in Africa, the Middle East, and Asia are the result of extremely large and unprecedented populations of locusts, which Is unlike anything in our lifetime!

2 Thunderstorm of hail and fire: Ex. 9.13–35 (cf. Rev. 16.21). Mammoth tornadoes, giant cyclones, extremely violent hurricanes, massive earthquakes, huge typhoons, and fantastic superstorms have recently wiped out large human populations, coupled with large-scale conflagrations, unprecedented and unique wildfires that have devastated and literally destroyed incredibly large-areas of real estate in California and Australia, among other places.

3 Pestilence (includes animals) Ex. 9.1-7 (cf. Rev 6.8). Pestilences, such as those that come from animals (e.g. coronavirus that comes from bats), are plagues of one form or another. This includes plagues and pandemics the likes of which have never been seen before. For ex, just look at how fast the coronavirus pandemic started from China and spread around the world, causing worldwide economic shutdown and killing hundreds of thousands of people!

4 Water to Blood: Ex. 7.14–24 (cf. Rev. 8.8; 16.3-4). Consider the great earthquakes and powerful tsunamis that have spread terror of late, such as the 2004 magnitude 9.1-9.3 M that unleashed a super tsunami that killed approximately 230k ppl in 14 countries, “making it one of the deadliest natural disasters in recorded history” (2004 Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami; Wiki), literally turning water into blood . . .

5 Death of firstborn: Ex. 11.1–12.36. The deaths of our loved ones (our first-born love [including but not limited to the mysterious coronavirus illness claiming children]) during this horrendous pandemic can be seen as another pestilence coming from the Biblical arsenal of plagues. And since “Egypt” represents all the nations (Gentiles) in the Bible, it would not be inappropriate to call it a pandemic that continues to kill our most treasured possessions. Not to mention the fact that we have the highest abortion rate in human history, with almost 11 million abortions worldwide this year!

6 Flies Ex. 8.20-32. The fourth *plague* of Egypt was of creatures capable of harming people and livestock. The Torah uses the term ‘arob (עָרוֹב "mixture" or "swarm"). That’s the exact same term used by the modern media to refer to the *locusts* that are currently devastating vast areas of the earth (including agriculture and food supplies) and causing famine and great terror in their wake. Not to mention the recent sightings of an increase in Asian giant hornets (aka murder hornets) that are extremely dangerous for bee populations, and may signal the end times.

7 Frogs: Ex. 7.25–8.15 (cf. Rev. 16.13). The super storms and hurricanes have produced one of the most spectacular frog and toad breeding seasons seen in decades in places like Florida, just as we see frog population explosions in places like Vermont, the Netherlands, Jersey (British Isles), and other places . . .

8 Lice or gnats: Ex. 8.16-19. There’s a surge in black fly populations, mosquitoes, and biting gnats that are killing livestock, and deer, and have forced nature center closure in Arkansas, for ex. The super lice surge is now found In 48 US states, and has caught public attention. They have developed a resistance to the pesticides and are growing in great numbers.

9 Boils or Sores: Ex. 9.8–12 (cf. Rev. 16.2). Boils are caused by bacteria. Today, nearly 50,000 men, women and children are dying each and every day from emerging infectious diseases caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi or parasites.

10 Darkness for three days: Ex. 10.21–29 (cf. Rev. 16.10). This is a plague that is yet to come. We have briefly experienced its effects during several blackouts in the US. But this particular darkness is related to the end times:

“For at that time there will be great suffering, such as has not been from the beginning of the world until now, no, and never will be” (Mt. 24.21).

It is associated with the Day of the Lord:

“Immediately after the suffering of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light; the stars will fall from heaven, and the powers of heaven will be shaken” (Mt. 24.29).

And it lasts 3 symbolic days because that’s how long the “great tribulation” will last, namely, three and a half years (cf. Dan. 7.25; 9.27; 12.7; Rev. 11.2-3; 12.6, 14; 13.5).

It is probably caused by a nuclear war that is triggered in the Middle East (Rev. 9.14) and spills over into Israel (cf. Ezek. 38.1-9, 14-16):

“This shall be the plague with which the Lord will strike all the peoples that wage war against Jerusalem: their flesh shall rot while they are still on their feet; their eyes shall rot in their sockets, and their tongues shall rot in their mouths” (Zech. 14.12).

Therefore, we can draw parallels between the judgments of Exodus and those of Revelation since they are strikingly similar! Could it be mere coincidence? I think not!

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Conclusion

If we look around our world today, the *increase* and *intensity* of these “plagues” has definitely multiplied exponentially in the last few decades in comparison with previous times. If we also acknowledge what prophecy scholars are telling us, namely, that the *restoration* of Israel represents the greatest fulfillment of Biblical end-time prophecy (e.g. Dan. 9.24-27; Ezek. 38.8), which was also known to one of the greatest scientists that ever lived, Isaac Newton, then Jesus’ saying becomes all the more remarkable and comprehensible when taking into account these prophetic circumstances:

“this generation will not pass away until all these things take place” (Mt. 24.34).

Most prophecy scholars believe that Jesus is referring to the *last generation* associated with the restoration of Israel. According to Psalm 90.10, a generation is equal to 70-80 years. Thus, 2020, when the “birth pangs” (Mt. 24.8) began, lies at the midpoint of that prophesied generation (2018-2028)! Which raises a significant question: are we living in the end times?

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Another significant prophetic marker is Matthew 24.6-8, a passage that is often interpreted as describing world wars, which first began in the 20th century:

“And you will hear of wars and rumors of wars; see that you are not alarmed; for this must take place, but the end is not yet. For nation will rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom, and there will be famines and earthquakes in various places: all this is but the beginning of the birth pangs.”

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Another important sign of the end times is the prophesied restoration of Israel, whose rebirth heralds the coming reign of the messiah. Daniel’s 70 weeks prophecy——if its starting date is 14 May 1948 (the founding of the modern state of Israel)——culminates in or around 2020. Perhaps the ending of the Mayan Calendar (2012), Malachiae’s “Prophecy of the Popes” (2013) that seems to end with the current pope, according to the experts, and the unique Blood Moon Tetrad of 2014-15 that fell on Biblical feasts and holy days are all pointing to the current crisis and the beginning of a new world order!

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Are these signs pointing to increasing turbulence in the future? And are they indicators or markers of a coming apocalypse? Almost all Bible prophecy experts answer that question with a resounding *Yes* (including this author)! In fact, I’ve been predicting that something disastrous would happen by 2020 for a good ten years now. And I was right!

God is Called by a Gentile Name

By Award-Winning Author Eli Kittim

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This paper is partially excerpted from a section by the same name in chapter 6 of my book, “The Little Book of Revelation.” In hindsight, we all know that the Biblical God is said to enlighten the world through progressive revelations (e.g. from the Old Testament [OT] to the New Testament [NT]). This fundamentally implies that the *meaning* of the name of God (YHWH) was originally incomprehensible until the arrival of the NT.

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The Greek NT: A Clue to the Meaning of the Divine Name

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Why was the NT written in Greek? Why are there more epistles written to Greek communities than any other? Why are most NT books written in Greece? Why do the NT authors quote predominantly from the Greek OT? Why doesn’t Jesus *reveal* the divine “I AM” as the aleph and the Tav in the language of the Hebrews?

Is it because the name of God has something to do with the Greek NT? Surprisingly, the answer is yes!

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YHWH: I AM THAT I AM

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God did not fully reveal himself to Moses (Exod. 3.14) except as “I Am that I Am.” The full revelation came later with Jesus. This expression is conventionally rendered as “Yahweh,” which is construed as “Lord.” But since there’s nothing akin to the letter “w” in the Hebrew alphabet, the variant “Yahveh”——pronounced as yah-va——may be furnished instead. Among the orthodox sects of the Judaic tradition, the religious adherents are strictly forbidden from vocalizing or even pronouncing the divine name. Even the Tetragrammaton “YHVH” is not allowed to be uttered. Hebrew was originally a consonantal language. Vowels and cantillation marks were added to the Bible by the Masoretes between the 7th and 10th centuries ce. Therefore, to call God Yahweh is a rough approximation. We don’t really know the actual name or what it signifies. But through Biblical and linguistic studies we can propose a scholarly theory.

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The Divine “I AM” Is Revealed in the NT as “ALPHA & OMEGA”

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Since the Divine “name” (i.e. the divine “I AM”) was ultimately revealed in the NT through the first and last letters of the Greek writing system (“I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end” Rev. 22.13), then it must therefore be known by a Gentile name. The Alpha and the Omega constitute “the beginning and the end” of the Greek alphabet. In other words, the Demiurge (Heb. 1.2) explicitly identifies himself with the language of the Greeks. No wonder why the NT was written in Greek and not in Hebrew. That’s precisely why we are told “how God First concerned Himself about taking from among the Gentiles a people for his name” (Acts 15.14):

“And with this the words of the Prophets agree, just as it is written, . . . ‘THE GENTILES WHO ARE CALLED BY MY NAME’ “ (Acts 15.15-17).

What a groundbreaking statement that is! This quote affords crystal clear evidence that the Deity’s name is not derived from Hebraic but rather Gentile sources. The Tanach (Hebrew Bible) states an identical motif:

“All the Gentiles. . . are called by My name” (Amos 9.12).

God explicitly identifies himself with the language of the Greeks: “ ‘I am the Alpha and the Omega,’ says the Lord God” (Rev. 1.8), and immediately thereafter this *Greek-theme* carries forward into the next verse in which John the Revelator is on *Greek* soil, “on the island called Patmos BECAUSE of the word of God and the testimony of Jesus” (Rev. 1.9 emphasis added). Hence why the NT is written in *Greek,* to reflect the Greek Jesus (Ιησούς). By the way, God is never called Yahweh in the NT: he’s called Lord (kurios). Similarly, Jesus is never called Yehoshua or Yeshua, as the Christian Hebrew Roots movement would have us believe!

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The Semantic Implications of Yahva: Phonetic and Grammatical Considerations

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If my theory is correct, we must find indications of a Greek linguistic element within the original name of God (i.e. “Yahva”) as it was previously disclosed to Moses. Indeed we do! In the Hebrew language, the term “Yavan” represents the Greeks (Josephus “Antiquities” I, 6). So, it’s not difficult to see how the phonetic and grammatical mystery of God’s name——Yahveh, pronounced as Yah-va——can clearly be solved by attributing its derivation to the Hebrew term “Ya-van,” which refers to the Greeks. Upon further inspection, the Hebrew names for both God and Greece (Yahva/Yavan) are virtually indistinguishable from one another, both grammatically and phonetically! Hence why it may have been kept as a secret and untranslatable under the consonantal name of God (“YV”), which, with the addition of vowels, not only points to “YaVan,” the Hebrew name for Greece, but also anticipates the arrival of the Greek NT!

There’s further evidence for a connection between the Greek & Hebrew names of God. In a few rare Septuagint manuscripts, the Tetragrammaton is actually translated as “IAO” (aka Greek Trigrammaton). That is to say, the divine name Yahva is rendered into Koine Greek as Ιαω (see e.g. Lev. 4.27 of Septuagint [LXX] manuscript 4Q120). This fragment is derived from the Dead Sea Scrolls, found at Qumran, and dated to the 1st century bce. Interestingly enough, the name IAO seemingly represents the Ancient Greeks (aka IAONIANS), the earliest literary records of whom are found in Homer (Gk. Ἰάονες; iāones) and also in the work of Hesiod (Gk. Ἰάων; iāōn). Nearly all Bible scholars concur that the Hebrew name Yavan represents the Iaonians; that is, Yavan is Ion (Ionia i.e. “Greece”). Further independent attestations come from the Patristic writings on the Tetragrammaton. According to the Catholic Encyclopedia (1910) & B.D. Eerdmans: Diodorus Siculus (1st century BCE) refers to the name of God by writing Ἰαῶ (Iao); Irenaeus (d. c. 202) reports that the Valentinians use Ἰαῶ (Iao); Origen of Alexandria (d. c. 254) employs Ἰαώ (Iao). Theodoret of Cyrus (393 – c. 458) writes Ἰαώ (Iao); he also reports that the Samaritans say Ἰαβέ or Ἰαβαί (both pronounced at that time */ja'vε/). Hence the secret name of God in both the Septuagint & the Hebrew Bible seemingly represents Greece!

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Conclusion: The NT Ascribes the Name of God to Greek Sources

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The final revelation of the name of God is made known in the NT (Ἐγώ εἰμι τὸ Ἄλφα καὶ τὸ Ὦ), and it clearly points to Greek sources. In hindsight, we can trace this Greek name back to the Divine “I am” in Exodus 3.14, as I have shown.

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What is “Eyewitness Testimony” in the New Testament and Who Are the “Eyewitnesses”?

By Author Eli Kittim

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It’s important to note that the gospels are later embellishments, not firsthand accounts, and their historicity and authorship are disputed. Thus, the purported author of John’s Gospel, who by the way is writing in refined Greek, couldn’t have been the alleged Aramaic disciple of Jesus not only because he wouldn’t be able to write in sophisticated Greek but also because he wouldn’t have been alive around 100 CE.

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So, what exactly does *Eyewitness testimony* mean in the New Testament (NT)?

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In the NT, the term “eyewitness” doesn’t necessarily mean witnessing physical-bodily phenomena. For example, Paul claims to be an •eyewitness• of Christ (1 Cor. 15:8), yet by his own self-confession his entire knowledge of Christ is based solely on revelations (Gal. 1.11-12; Acts 9.3-5). Scholars are in agreement that Paul never saw Jesus in the flesh.

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By comparison, it is explicitly stated in Luke’s gospel that the group of women at the tomb saw a “vision” (24.23–24), similar to that of the “witnesses” who were said to be “chosen beforehand” (προκεχειροτονημένοις) in Acts 10.40–41 (NASB). “Beforehand” means “in advance.” It implies a •foreknowledge• that is spiritually discerned prior to the experience of an event. In short: it represents a prophecy! But there is more.

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For example, in 2 Peter 1.16-19 the apostles are said to be “eyewitnesses” not of physical phenomena but rather of “the prophetic message.” Astoundingly, they’re eyewitnesses of visual and auditory messages (voices & visions) that were heard, literally, as voices, but were nevertheless part of a so-called “prophecy” or prediction:

“For we did not follow cleverly devised myths when we made known to you the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, but we had been •eyewitnesses• of his majesty. For he received honor and glory from God the Father when that voice was conveyed to him by the Majestic Glory, saying, ‘This is my Son, my Beloved, with whom I am well pleased.’ We ourselves •heard this voice• come from heaven, while we were with him on the holy mountain. So we have the •prophetic message• more fully confirmed” (emphasis added).

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Similarly, First Peter 1.10-11 suggests an •eschatological• soteriology (cf. Heb. 1.1-2; 9.26b; 1 Pet. 1.20), that is to say, “the sufferings of the Messiah and the glories that would follow” were actually “PREDICTED” in advance:

“Concerning this salvation, the prophets, who spoke of the grace that was to come to you, searched intently and with the greatest care, trying to find out the time and circumstances to which the Spirit of Christ in them was pointing when he •predicted• the sufferings of the Messiah and the glories that would follow” (NIV emphasis added).

(If you want to further explore the exegetical details of the aforementioned quote, click on the following link):

https://eli-kittim.tumblr.com/post/184378109027/by-eli-kittim-concerning-this-salvation-the

Eli of Kittim

First Peter 1.10-11 Suggests An Eschatological Soteriology

By Eli Kittim "Concerning this salvation, the prophets, who spoke of the grace that was to come to you, searched intently and with the grea

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So, when John’s Gospel introduces itself as the composition of a so-called •eyewitness• to the events of Jesus’ lifetime (“who saw” something; Jn 19.35), it may be talking about •history-written-in-advance•, similar to the Book of Revelation (cf. 4.1-2), which is explicitly referred to as a Book of *prophecy* (1.3; 22.7, 10, 18-19), a book that is also believed by Christian tradition to have been penned by the same apostle, “who saw” the end of days!

Hence both 2 Peter and the Book of Revelation are two very clear examples where “Eyewitness testimony” is explicitly related to *prophecy,* that is to say, *history written in advance*! Put differently, the gospel narratives are seemingly set in a transhistorical context. Transhistoricity, in other words, is the flip side of the notion that NT meanings are restricted to their historical context.

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Therefore, the so-called “eyewitnesses testimonies” are actually referring to •visions• pertaining to *prophetic* events. That’s why the account or “testimony” to Jesus is NOT historical but *prophetic*:

“For the testimony [to] Jesus is the spirit of prophecy”

—(Rev. 19.10d “The New Oxford Annotated Bible with Apocrypha: NRSV” [4th rev. edn; New York: Oxford University, 2010], p. 2176, n.e.).

If Jesus is a historical figure, who supposedly existed prior to the composition of the Book of Revelation, shouldn’t his “testimony” be the Spirit of history? And yet, by contrast, his “testimony” is explicitly referred to as “the spirit of prophecy.” Something to think about.

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The argument that Jesus has not yet come is based on both the internal and external evidence

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The *external evidence* demonstrates that there are no firsthand accounts (the gospel writers are not eyewitnesses). There are also no independent secular accounts of Jesus until the close of the first century CE. Josephus’ “Testimonium Flavianum,” toward the turn of the century, is considered as unacceptable evidence by most scholars due to extensive interpolations. Even Tacitus’ later account represents an obvious interpolation. So, despite Jesus’ so-called extraordinary feats, no one is writing anything about him outside of the NT for approximately 65y. Not a single word is written about Jesus, there’s not even a passive reference to him, even though we have a lot of documents from that period dealing with just about every aspect of life, political and otherwise.

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The *internal evidence* is equally strong. Besides the *end-time* •messianic death-and-resurrection• themes that are clearly addressed in the Old Testament (e.g., Isa. 2.2, 19; Dan. 12.1-2; Zeph. 1.7, 14-18; and Zech. 12.10), there are many such motifs also found in the NT!

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The evidence from the NT is sometimes rather explicit and quite compelling. For example, Hebrews 1.2 clearly states that God speaks to humanity through his Son in the “last days” (ἐπ ἐσχάτου τῶν ἡμερῶν). Notice that the *last days* represent an eschatological time-period that is obviously distinguished from “Long ago,” in other words, it is differentiated from the time of Antiquity in verse 1. But, even more explicit is the verse from Heb. 9.26b:

“once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself” (KJV).

https://biblehub.com/hebrews/9-26.htm

Proper Biblical Exegesis demands that we understand NT Greek. The Greek phrase reads as follows:

ἅπαξ ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων εἰς ἀθέτησιν ἁμαρτίας διὰ τῆς θυσίας αὐτοῦ πεφανέρωται (Heb. 9.26b SBLGNT).

The term ἅπαξ (hapax) means “once for all.” The Greek phrase ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων (i.e., “at the end of the age”) is a reference to “the end of the world” (KJV) or “the consummation of the ages” (NASB cf. Dan. 12.4 LXX). Whenever this Greek phrase appears in the NT it is invariably referring to “the end of the world” (cf. Mt. 13.39-40, 49; 24.3; 28.20, etc.).

There are also parallel verses and verbal agreements in which the overall linguistic meaning of this phrase is confirmed by the Patristic Fathers of that period: τόν . . . υιόν . . . ερχόμενον ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ του αἰωνος κρίναι ζώντας καί νεκρούς (G.W.H. Lampe [ed.], “A Patristic Greek Lexicon” [Oxford: Oxford University, 1961], p. 1340).

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Therefore, the eschatological phrase συντελείας του αιωνος (which is usually translated as “the end of the age”) can ONLY refer to the END OF THE WORLD! And Hebrews 9.26b tells us unequivocally and categorically that this is ALSO the TIME when Christ DIES for the SINS (εἰς ἀθέτησιν ἁμαρτίας) of the world. The meaning is quite obvious. But that’s not all. There are many, many other NT passages that CONFIRM this view.

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First Peter 1.20 is a case in point:

“He was marked out before the world was made, and was revealed at the final point of time” (NJB).

It is quite explicit. Once again, “the final point of time” (επ´ έσχάτου των χρόνων) refers to the culmination or consummation of the ages. And this is the time period when Christ will be initially “revealed,” according to 1 Peter 1.20 (cf. Lk 17.30; 1 Cor. 1.7; 1 Jn 2.28). Then there are other passages that I can’t get into right now due to time restrictions, such as Rev. 12.5, where Christ is born in the end-times as a contemporary of the final world-empire which is depicted as a red dragon with 7 heads and 10 horns. Rev. 6.2 equally shows that the first horseman that will appear in the end times is Christ! To understand why the white horse of Rev. 6.2 represents Christ, please look at the following link from my blog:

https://eli-kittim.tumblr.com/post/168159235542/who-is-the-first-horseman-of-the-apocalypse

Eli of Kittim

WHO IS THE FIRST HORSEMAN OF THE APOCALYPSE?

By Eli of Kittim THERE ARE NO COUNTERFEIT SIGNS IN THE BIBLE There are no counterfeit signs found anywhere in the Bible. So why should

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I could cite many more examples, but I think you get the idea . . .

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Incidentally, the notion that Jesus will appear “once and for all” (hapax; Heb. 9.26b) in the end-times does not change anything whatsoever soteriologically speaking. In other words, it’s not a salvation issue because, according to the NT, we are saved IN FAITH as we “eagerly await a Savior” (Phil. 3.20 NIV) “for a salvation that is ready to be revealed at the end of time (1 Pet. 1.5 GW).

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Conclusion

This unique Biblical exegesis doesn’t change our Soteriology. But it does change our Theology. So, for example, those who think that Jesus already died will be shocked to see him coming not from the sky but from the earth. And “his own” (i.e. the Christians; cf. Jn 1.11) will eventually reject him as the so-called “Antichrist.” Christian Bible-Prophecy experts have already paved the way for rejecting the Christ through faulty and preconceived interpretations of Revelation 6.2. Even though this is clearly Christ, as I’ve demonstrated in the aforesaid essay, nevertheless the mainstream view holds that the first horseman who rides a white horse is the Antichrist . . .

So, unless you understand what’s going on, you will be very confused during the unfolding of these events in the End time!

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