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4 years ago
The Seven Churches Of Revelation: History Or Prophecy?

The Seven Churches of Revelation: History or Prophecy?

By Published Author Eli Kittim

Preachers whose sermons are on the 7 churches of Revelation assume that the context is of historical significance and therefore usually focus on the moral implications, but they completely miss the most important prophetic elements of the text, such as the background setting (i.e. the place where the narrative takes place), the significant players that are mentioned, the temporal sequence of events, as well as the apocalyptic symbolism that weaves everything together into a unity.

Unlike the typical “a-church-after-God’s-heart” homily that you’ve often heard regarding the 7 so-called historical churches in Revelation, I would like to draw your attention instead to the unique setting of the Book, to its arrangement of scenery: its mise-en-scène, if you will! Viewing the first chapters of Revelation from this angle will allow us to gain a new perspective on the Seven Churches of Asia and free our hermeneutic from the typical proleptic and anachronistic interpretations that have been irresponsibly applied to the text time and time again.

From beginning to end, Revelation claims to be an exclusively prophetic Book (cf. Rev. 1.1, 3, 19; 22.7, 10, 18, 19)! If we treat it as a Book on history, however, we will inevitably distort its futurist message, which undeniably comprises apocalyptic visions, and ultimately contradict its authorial intention. Yet that is precisely how the first 3 chapters of Revelation have been traditionally read, that is, as contemporaneous events and happenings during the time of John in the first century CE. But perhaps we are not reading them correctly. I’m suggesting a mode of interpretation that is consistent with the rest of the Book, namely, that the first three chapters of Revelation have a prophetic role to play whose sole purpose is to provide an outline of how the end-times begin!

Bearing this in mind, let us now see how the Apocalypse of John is actually presented to the reader. The Book opens with a declaration to promulgate “the words of the prophecy” (Rev. 1.3 NRSV):

“Blessed is the one who reads aloud the

words of the prophecy, and blessed are

those who hear and who keep what is

written in it; for the time is near.”

And so from the very outset this Book claims to contain a prophecy. It does not seem to be interested in conveying history. Next, we are told that John, who is the recipient of this future revelation, is also, by way of the Spirit, an *eschatological* partaker in the coming tribulation or persecution of Christianity in Asia Minor (i.e. Modern-day Turkey), and that he is figuratively situated on the Greek island of Patmos “because of the word of God and the testimony of Jesus.” Given that John claims to be “in the spirit on the Lord’s day [i.e. on the day of the Lord]” (Rev. 1.9-11), his mise-en-scène (i.e. the arrangement or setting of scenery) seems to have prophetic rather than historical value:

“I, John, your brother who share with you in

Jesus the persecution and the kingdom and

the patient endurance, was on the island

called Patmos because of the word of God

and the testimony of Jesus. I was in the

spirit on the Lord's day, and I heard behind

me a loud voice like a trumpet saying,

‘Write in a book what you see and send it to

the seven churches, to Ephesus, to Smyrna,

to Pergamum, to Thyatira, to Sardis, to

Philadelphia, and to Laodicea.’ “

Thus, John is basically instructed to write 7 letters to the Christian Churches that are facing persecution in Turkey! If we temporarily suspend Eusebius’ “Church History” in which John is portrayed as an exile——the accuracy of which has often been called into question——we can begin to view the *eschatological* scenery that the Book of Revelation is actually depicting. If in fact the Book of Revelation is an overlay of the end-time events described also in Mt. 24, then it must naturally start with “the beginning of the birth pangs” (Mt. 24.8) that lead up to the “great suffering” (Mt. 24.21), otherwise known as the Great Tribulation. And indeed it does! Moreover, we find Turkey also playing a prominent role in Ezekiel 38, the famous chapter on end-times prophecy!

The Ezekiel 38 War

Ezekiel 38 names a confederacy of nations that will invade many countries, including Israel, in the last days. Although there have been debates among scholars as to the precise location of some of these ancient regions, most of them have been identified with a certain degree of confidence. Of the several regions mentioned by Ezekiel, who is putting pen to parchment in the 6th century BCE, the majority of them were located in what we today would call Turkey. For example, Beth-Togarmah and Gomer are viewed as ancient regions in Asia Minor [Turkey].

Although there are admittedly conflicting reports with scholars being divided on the issue of the origins of Meshech and Tubal (as to whether they represent Russia or Turkey), the following list shows some of the historical research supporting a Turkish connection:

1. The Oxford Bible Atlas says of Meshech and Tubal that they’re “regions in Asia Minor [Turkey].”

2. The IVP Bible Background Commentary lists Meshech, Tubal, and Togarmah as “sections or peoples in Asia Minor” [Turkey].

3. The New Bible Dictionary places both Meshech and Tubal in Turkey.

4. Ralph Alexander, Old Testament scholar, in the Expositor’s Bible Commentary says, “Meshech and Tubal refer to areas in eastern Turkey, southwest of Russia and northwest of Iran.”

5. Edwin Yamauchi, scholar and historian places both Meshech and Tubal in modern day Turkey.

6. Mark Hitchcock, pastor, author and well-known prophecy teacher, places Meshech and Tubal in modern day Turkey.

7. Tim Lahaye and Ed Hindson, in their Encyclopedia of Popular Bible Prophecies, also place both Meshech and Tubal in Turkey.

8. Ron Rhodes, author and teacher in his book, Northern Storm Rising, also places Meshech and Tubal in Turkey.

9. Chuck Missler in his article, Meshech-Tubal Tensions with Syria also places Meshech and Tubal in modern day Turkey.

*Source Credit: Dalton Thomas

Therefore, of the eight regions mentioned in Ezek. 38.1-6, at least four of them are identified as parts of modern-day Turkey. And since this invasion is set to begin “in the latter years” (Ezek. 38.8), it demonstrates that Turkey will figure prominently in this campaign!

The other thing to notice, here, is that almost all the nations mentioned in Ezek. 38 were once part of the Turkish Ottoman Empire. For instance, Cush comprised the area of modern-day Ethiopia or Sudan, just south of Egypt, Put was where modern Libya and Algeria (N. Africa) are located, while Tubal, Gomer, Togarmah, and Meshech were apparently in Asia Minor. And parts of Persia were also under Ottoman rule during the Ottoman-Persian wars. All in all, Ezek. 38 sounds like it’s describing a resurgence of the Ottoman Empire, consisting of an Islamic coalition of nations! Similarly, in Revelation 12.1, the woman who gives birth to the messiah at the end of days is said to have “the moon under her feet.” That is the symbol of Islam. Therefore, if a revived Ottoman Empire is indicated in the Gog-Magog War, which leads up to the battle of Armageddon, then this means that Turkey must also be either explicitly or implicitly mentioned in the Book of Revelation! Hence the Turkish persecution of the 7 churches in the Book of Revelation!

The Prophecies of Paisios of Mount Athos

A number of extra-biblical prophecies have been attributed to Elder Paisios (1924–1994), a highly respected Greek Eastern-Orthodox ascetic from Mount Athos. They include the prediction that a future geopolitical war between Greece and Turkey will spill over and draw Russia into the conflict against Turkey, which will be the latter’s ultimate demise. Similarly, there’s a prophecy attributed to the 18th century Rabbi Elijah of Vilna, aka the Vilna Gaon, in which he purportedly said that Messiah will come right after “the Russians have reached the city of Constantinople [Istanbul].” In fact, Elder Paisios said that the trigger point of Greek-Turkish hostilities will be reached when Greece extends its territorial waters from 6 to 12 nautical miles. Recently, Greece and Turkey are at variance with each other over the demarcation of sea borders and the right to explore hydrocarbon resources in the Mediterranean. There have been both air and naval incidents, tensions and hostilities have flared up and are steadily increasing since August of 2020. Recep Tayyip Erdoğan, the incumbent President of Turkey, in violation of international law continues to employ intimidation tactics and war-narratives in an effort to reinforce his expansionist plans. It’s no secret that he wants to rebuild the Ottoman Empire and restore its former glory. He also aspires to become the Caliph, the supreme ruler of the Muslim world! However, France has come to Greece’s aid with naval support in a countermeasure to push Erdoğan back. This situation is a disaster waiting to happen. In fact, Devlet Bahçeli, the Head of the Turkish National Movement Party, recently declared that war with Greece is “just a matter of time.” More to the point, Greece recently extended its territorial waters from 6 to 12 nautical miles in the Ionian Sea, sending a message to Turkey that it will soon do the same in the Aegean! According to Elder Paisios, this will be the trigger point of the conflict. At present, the situation in Turkey is very tense as Erdoğan has *persecuted* and shut down *Christian churches* while reverting Hagia Sophia to a mosque. That’s equivalent to the Israelis turning the Al-Aqsa Mosque into a Jewish Synagogue. It’s deplorable and provocative! It has caught the attention of the international community that has unanimously condemned this action. At any rate, this current standoff might explode into a full-blown war. According to some experts, this armed conflict over oil and gas reserves seems unavoidable! And that’s precisely where the Book of Revelation begins.

The Book of Revelation Opens with the Greek Islands, on the one hand, and the Persecuted Churches in Turkey, on the other!

In Revelation 17.9-10, John mentions the Empire that exists *contemporaneously* with the prophetic events of Revelation as they are temporally unfolding:

“This calls for a mind that has wisdom: the

seven heads are seven mountains on which

the woman is seated; also, they are seven

kings, of whom five have fallen, one is living,

and the other has not yet come; and when

he comes, he must remain only a little while.”

As regards the 8 empires of Revelation 17, John says that “five have fallen.” According to Dan. 2, that would be Babylon, Medo-Persia, Greece, Rome, and Byzantium. The One that “Is Living” at present is the Sixth One, which presumably persecutes the Christian Churches of Anatolia in the opening chapters of Revelation, namely, the Ottoman Empire of the Turks, which defeated the Byzantines in 1453. Incidentally, we know that John is not referring to the 1st century CE because the empire that “is living” at that time is the 4th (Rome), according to Daniel 2.40-42; 7.7. By contrast, Rev. 17.10 is referring to the prophesied 6th Empire as the “one [that] is still reigning” (WNT)! It could also be said that the Ottoman Empire actually triggered the End-Times (cf. Mt. 24.6-9) at the outset of the 20th century through the unprecedented Christian Persecutions & Genocides of Anatolia (Greek/Armenian), just prior to WWI and WWII, the brunt of which lasted for approximately 7 years, thus symbolizing the Tribulation of the 7 Christian Churches of Asia Minor that usher in the end of days in the Book of Revelation. So, in John’s own words, the empire that “is living” *now* (contemporaneously with the 7 churches) is the 6th empire: the Ottoman Empire. Why would John mention that in chapter 17 and verse 10? It’s obviously not Rome, as most people think. Rome was the 4th empire. It’s probably because the end-times will commence with a conflict pertaining to Asia Minor (Turkey). Think about it. Revelation is inundated with future predictions. Why would it spend its first 3 chapters on past or current events if it is said to be “The revelation of Jesus Christ” that contains information of “what must soon take place” (Rev. 1.1)?

Moreover, John tells us categorically and unequivocally that he was on the island of Patmos “in the spirit” (Rev. 1.10), NOT in the flesh! It appears, then, that John is on Patmos figuratively, not literally, in order to pronounce the testimony, which “is the spirit of prophecy” (Rev. 19.10d). What is more, John doesn’t tell us that he’s in exile. That is an extra-biblical interpretation. It’s a speculation that is not found in the text. This tradition, which says that John was banished to Patmos by the Roman authorities, is not credible because, although banishment was a common form of punishment by Rome for various offenses, nevertheless Tertullian’s account (in The Prescription of Heretics) is flavored with myth and legend given that he claims that John was banished after being plunged into boiling oil in Rome and suffering nothing from it. This obviously fits in the category of urban legends. Nor does the author of Revelation say that he is on the island of Patmos physically. Rather, he says that he is there “in the spirit” in order to give us the scenery, so to speak, the prophetic background of how the tribulation begins “on the Lord’s day” (Rev. 1.10) or on the day of the Lord!

Conclusion

Revelation 1.3 explicitly states that this is an exclusively prophetic Book which is not concerned with past history. The prophetic implications are further reinforced by its author, John, who claims to be “in the spirit on the Lord’s day [i.e. on the day of the Lord]” (Rev. 1.9-11). Thus, the mise-en-scène (i.e. the arrangement or setting of scenery) is itself part of the apocalyptic vision, which implicates Turkey in end-time events related to the Great Tribulation! Turkey is also implicated in the Ezekiel 38 War, which sets the stage for Armageddon, the final great battle between good and evil!

Furthermore, the prophecies of Paisios of Mount Athos center around an end-times conflict in the Mediterranean between Greece and Turkey, Biblically represented by Patmos and Asia Minor respectively, “where Satan's throne is” said to be located (Rev. 2.13). Moreover, what lends considerable support to my exegesis is the fact that John connects the timeline of the 7 churches account not with the Roman Empire (the 4th) but rather with the Ottoman Empire (the 6th), which is said to be currently reigning in Rev. 17.10. For example, we know that John is not referring to the 1st century CE because the empire that “is living” at that time is the 4th [Rome]. By contrast, Rev. 17.10 is explicitly referring to the so-called current empire that “is living” and reigning at that time, after “five have [already] fallen.” That would be the prophesied 6th empire, namely, the Ottoman Empire, the continuation of which is modern Turkey! Also, chapters 2 and 3 employ tribulation language, or the language of crisis. Given that chapters 2 and 3 reference the tribulation (θλῖψιν 2:9), and since authority and rule (2:26-27) and white garments (3:4-5) are promised therein to those who overcome, it is more than likely that these represent the tribulation saints (cf. Luke 22:30). Evidence for this comes by way of a parallel passage in Rev. 7:13-14 concerning those coming out of the Great Tribulation who “have washed their robes and made them white.” Therefore, these seemingly represent the overcomers of Revelation 2 and 3! In short, the first 3 chapters of Revelation are part of prophecy, NOT history, featuring Turkey as the epicenter of end-time events! In fact, our traditional proleptic and anachronistic interpretations——in which we have erroneously *added* a “historical” component to the first 3 chapters of Revelation, while *taking* “away from the words of the book of this prophecy”——are strongly condemned by the author himself (Rev. 22.18-19):

“I warn everyone who hears the words of the

prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to

them, God will add to that person the

plagues described in this book; if anyone

takes away from the words of the book of

this prophecy, God will take away that

person’s share in the tree of life and in the

holy city, which are described in this book.”


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4 years ago
A Critique Of The Three Comings Of Christ

A Critique of the Three Comings of Christ

By Eli Kittim

Mainstream Christianity holds to the three comings of Christ. This modern eschatological position is so bizarre that it has actually devised not one, not two, but three comings of Christ. Some offshoots of this doctrine have additional comings. Here’s a brief summary of this view:

1. First Coming = Christ’s Incarnation, believed to have been witnessed in the first century c.e. (cf. Lk 2.11).

2. Second Coming = Christ will *invisibly* return for the rapture of the faithful (cf. 1 Thess. 4.16-17).

3. Third Coming = Christ will return once again and will be followed by a great multitude of saints (cf. 1 Thess. 3.13).

By contrast, I propose that there’s only *one* coming mentioned in the New Testament (NT), which complements the *one* coming mentioned in the Old Testament (OT).

The Gospel Genre

This is the starting point of all the hermeneutical confusion, which sets the tone for the rest of the Christian Canon. The gospels are not biographies or historiographical accounts. As most Bible scholars acknowledge, they are largely embellished theological or apocalyptic documents that show a heavy literary dependence on the OT. So, the assumption that the gospels are furnishing us with biographical information seems to be a misreading of the genre, which appears to be theological in nature. In comparison with the expository writing of the NT epistolary literature, which is explicit and didactic, the literary style of the canonical gospels can only be described as a theological genre of historical fiction!

The epistles apparently contradict the gospels regarding the timeline of Christ’s birth, death, and resurrection by placing it in eschatological categories. The epistolary authors deviate from the gospel writers in their understanding of the overall importance of eschatology in the chronology of Jesus. For them, Scripture comprises revelations and “prophetic writings” (see Rom. 16.25-26; 2 Pet. 1.19-21; Rev. 22.18-19)! According to the NT Epistles, the Christ will die “once for all” (Gk. ἅπαξ hapax) “at the end of the age” (Heb. 9.26b), a phrase which consistently refers to the end of the world (cf. ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων in Dan. 12.4 LXX; Mt. 13.39-40, 49; 24.3; 28.20). Similarly, just as Heb. 1.2 says that the physical Son speaks to humanity in the “last days,” 1 Pet. 1.20 (NJB) demonstrates the eschatological timing of Christ’s *initial* appearance with unsurpassed lucidity:

“He was marked out before the world was

made, and was revealed at the final point of

time.”

The 70-Weeks Prophecy of Daniel

Daniel’s seventy weeks’ prophecy refers exclusively to the end-time and has nothing to do with the time of Antiquity. It specifically alludes to the reestablishment of the State of Israel, a prophecy that was fulfilled in 1948 (cf. Ezek. 38.8)! A common misconception is to assume that the starting point of this prophecy began after the Hebrews returned from the Babylonian exile during the 500s b.c.e. However, this prophecy refers to the end of all visions and revelations, an end-time period that will in effect “seal both vision and prophet” (Dan. 9.24). John MacArthur, in describing Dan.9.24, was once quoted as saying: “It’s got to be a final thing cause everything is a final… . Boy, that’s final stuff, isn’t it? The end, the finish, the seal, seal it up, close it up, that’s the way it is!” If it is “final stuff,” then the prophecy cannot possibly be referring to the time of Antiquity but rather to the time of the end! This prophecy also refers to “times of distress” (Dan. 9.25 NASB), a phrase which is used elsewhere in the Book of Daniel to refer to the time of the end (see Dan. 12.1). Note also that Daniel outlines the timeline of the Messiah’s *death* as occurring *AFTER* the prophesied rebirth of Israel (9.25-26) at the end of days!

The traditional Christian interpretation is further compounded by breaking up the prophecy into two parts: one part fulfilled during the time of Antiquity, the other referring to the last week of the great tribulation (GT). In other words, exegetes assume that there is a two thousand-year gap between the so-called “sixty nine” weeks and the seventieth week. However, there is no Biblical evidence of a long time-gap between these weeks, but rather a successive sequence of events that combines both *princes* within the same context of the eschatological timetable (cf. Dan. 9.24-27), thus rendering the expositors’ imposition on the text unwarranted. That’s why Isa. 2.19 puts the resurrection of Christ in the last days. He says that people will hide in the caves of rocks when “the Lord … arises to terrify the earth” (cf. Rev. 6.15-17). First Cor. 15.22-24 tells us explicitly that Christ will be resurrected in the end-times (an idea also entertained by British New Testament scholar James Dunn).

2 Thessalonians Chapter 2

The author of 2 Thess. 2 warns against deception by stating unequivocally that the coming of Christ for the rapture cannot occur “unless the rebellion comes first and the lawless one is revealed” (2.1-3). There’s a further condition that has to be met before the rapture can take place, and before the “lawless one” (i.e. the Antichrist) can be revealed, namely, someone needs to be removed from the earth. A common misinterpretation is that this must either be a reference to the *Holy Spirit* or to the *church*, which will be taken out of the way before the Antichrist can be revealed. But if it is the Holy Spirit or the church it would directly contradict the Book of Revelation (7.13-14), which foresees a great spiritual revival during the time of the GT. For instance, John the Revelator sees “a great multitude that” came “out of the great ordeal [GT]” (Rev. 7.9, 14). This multitude represents the “church” of Christ, which is obviously present, not absent, during the GT. And without the Holy Spirit no one can be saved (Rom. 8.9b). Therefore, the so-called “restrainer” of 2 Thess. 2.6-7 can neither be the Holy Spirit nor the church. This mysterious figure can only be explained by my unique eschatological view. Since I hold that the first horseman of the Apocalypse is Christ (the white horseman), it is he and he alone who is the restrainer, and after he is *slain* the Antichrist will be revealed.

Millennialism

Christian eschatology holds that the so-called “second coming” of Jesus will transpire either before the Millennium (i.e. premillennialism) or after the Millennium (i.e postmillennialism). First, a literal millennial kingdom would contradict the Bible because it would imply more than 2 comings of Christ, 2 apocalypses, 2 Great Wars, 2 resurrections, 2 Great Endings, and so on, as opposed to one of each, which is what the Bible teaches. Second, the endtime war that Satan is said to unleash at the end of the millennium (Rev. 20.8) is the exact same war mentioned in Ezekiel 38: Gog & Magog. Third, 1 Thess. 4.17 says that after the rapture “we will be with the Lord forever,” not just for 1,000 years. Fourth, the Book of Daniel is clear that both the Good and the Damned will be resurrected simultaneously, not successively (12.2). By contrast, the second death in Revelation 20.14 is incorporeal, NOT physical. It’s the lake of fire; a spiritual death. It’s a category, not an event. So, only 1 physical resurrection is indicated in the Bible; not 2! Fifth, the only physical resurrection mentioned in the Bible is the one that is called the 1st resurrection, presumably because it comes prior to the above-mentioned spiritual one. And this resurrection is said to occur when the thousand years are finished (Rev. 20.5). And if it’s explicitly mentioned as the first resurrection, then it means that there couldn’t have been an earlier one. So then, how could the same people who would not be resurrected “until the thousand years were completed” (Rev. 20.5) simultaneously live and reign with Christ for a millennium? (Rev. 20.4). They cannot be both dead and alive at the same time! Therefore, Amillennialism (i.e. the view that there will be no literal millennial reign of the righteous on earth) is not obliged to subscribe to the *three-comings-of-Christ* model!

Does Christ Return Multiple Times?

The belief in the *three comings* of Christ equally contradicts a number of NT passages (e.g. 1 Cor. 15.22—26, 54—55; 2 Tim. 2.16—18; Rev. 19.10; 22.7, 10, 18—19), not to mention those of the OT that do not separate the Messiah’s initial coming from his reign (e.g. Isa. 9.6—7; 61.1—2). Rather than viewing them as three separate and distinguishable historical events, Scripture sets forth a single coming and does not make that distinction (see Lk. 1.31—33). Indeed, each time the “redeeming work” of Messiah is mentioned, it is almost invariably followed or preceded by some kind of reference to judgment (e.g. “day of vengeance”), which signifies the commencement of his reign on earth (see Isa. 63.4).

Conclusion

Most people expect Christ to come from the sky. The truth is, he will come from the earth (cf. Acts 1.11). The sequence of eschatological events is as follows: Christ will appear “at the final point of time” (1 Pet. 1.20 NJB; Rev. 6.2). He will die “once in the end of the world” (Heb. 9.26b KJV; Zeph. 1.7-8, 14-18) and resurrect (1 Cor. 15.22-24; Heb. 9.27-28) to rapture the faithful (1 Cor. 15.51-52; 1 Thess. 4.15-17; 2 Thess. 2.1-3) and fight the nations (Isa. 31.5; 63.3; Zech. 14.3; Rev. 19.15)!

The difference between my view and the classical Christian perspective is that I’m convinced that there are not multiple comings and multiple returns of Christ, but *only one* decisive coming at the end of the world, which includes the resurrection, the rapture, and his appearance in the sky!


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4 years ago
What If The Crucifixion Of Christ Is A Future Event?

What if the Crucifixion of Christ is a Future Event?

By Author Eli Kittim

Biblical Exegesis, the Canonical Context, and the Analogy of Scripture

Biblical studies must involve “the whole counsel of God” (Acts 20.27) or the entire Biblical canon, in which all books must be examined equally as parts of a larger *canonical context,* not simply on an individual basis or as isolated parts. Moreover, in order to avoid confirmation bias, we must employ the hermeneutical principle known as “the analogy of Scripture” (Lat. ‘analogia Scripturae’). Thus, the inability of an expositor to remain completely objective is offset by the process in which Scripture interprets Scripture without outside interference or intervention.

Dogmatic theology: Proof-text and Coherence Fallacies

What is Classical Christianity’s foundational faith statement? The Protestant commentariat speaks highly of the Reformation, a movement that gradually freed itself from fiercely defended church traditions and council decrees through its fervent adherence to sola scriptura. But, unfortunately, the reformation didn’t go far enough. Sadly, reformed theology is, in many ways, a reprise of a long standing interpretation of Scripture which is based on ecclesiastical theology and authority. For example, the Nicene Creed——which was adopted during the First Council of Constantinople in 381 CE——reads:

I believe in one Lord Jesus Christ . . . who for

us men, and for our salvation, came down

from heaven, and was incarnate by the Holy

Ghost of the Virgin Mary, and was made

man, he was crucified for us under Pontius

Pilate, and suffered, and was buried, and

the third day he rose again, according to

the Scriptures, and ascended into heaven,

and sitteth on the right hand of the Father;

from thence he shall come again, with glory,

to judge the quick and the dead.

Protestants have unquestionably accepted this church dogma. But a second coming begs the question as it is nowhere mentioned in the New Testament (NT). And there is no epistolary proof that Jesus was born of a virgin, nor is there any proof regarding the dogma of the Immaculate Conception that expounds on the implications of the virgin birth, which was only recently adopted by the Roman Catholic Church via an apostolic constitution in 1854!

And what of all the Scriptures that contradict the Nicene dogma, which erroneously asserts of a messianic sacrifice in Antiquity? What about Zeph. 1.7-9, 15-18 that clearly equates the Lord’s sacrifice with the “day of the Lord”? Are we to assume that the day of the Lord already happened in Antiquity? And what about the piercing of the Messiah “on that [apocalyptic] day”? (Zech. 12.9-10)! Can we seriously ignore the end-of-the-world timeline in Mt. 13.39-40, 49? Or in Mt. 24.3? Or in Mt. 28.20? Yet the exact same apocalyptic phrase that is used in all these verses is ALSO used in **Hebrews 9.26b**, which explicitly refers to a messianic sacrifice that will transpire “once for all” (hapax) “at the end of the age,” a period that is synonymous with the day of the Lord and with judgment day! And why ignore Scripture which says explicitly that Christ speaks to humanity in the “last days”? (Heb. 1.2). Why should we deliberately ignore the future incarnation of Christ in Rev. 12.5? Or the fact that the testimony to Jesus is prophetic? (Rev. 19.10d). Or the first coming of Jesus in 1 Pet. 1.20? Or the Son of Man that has not yet been revealed in Lk 17.30? Or the initial visitation of the messiah during “the time of universal restoration”? (Acts 3.19-21). Or Christ’s future resurrection in 1 Cor. 15.23-24? Or the admonition against the historical resurrection theology in 2 Tim. 2.18? Or the fact that Jesus’ one and only coming is associated with judgment day in John 9.39? (cf. Lk 12.49).

The Apocalyptic Aspect of the Gospels

If this is indeed the canonical context, then it cannot be overridden by Catholic dogmas against which the reformers fought so hard to free themselves from. Catholic dogmatic theology once set the theological standard against which all other theories were measured, whereby it inevitably lead to multiple coherence fallacies down through the ages. In other words, the church’s misreading of the gospel literature as historical is obviously not compatible with the overall existing theology of Scripture! In short, what was originally Apocalyptic Christianity was turned into Historical Christianity by Church dogma!

This plays such a crucial role that many Christian adherents today feel that if the historical component is discredited, then Christianity can no longer be viable or credible. Noted author John Ankerberg has said something to that effect, and so have many others, including philosopher/apologist William Lane Craig, who tries desperately to prove the historical aspects of the Christian faith. And yet Christianity is and always has been an *Apocalyptic Religion* that is based on a revelation or unveiling of the end times! Due to its prophetic and apocalyptic foundation, the NT text remains credible and viable even if its literary elements prove to be unhistorical. Ultimately, the Bible is a book on faith, not on history or science. As Kierkegaard would argue, the Christian tenets cannot be proved empirically or historically; they can only be experienced existentially! Christianity is not a belief of the mind but of the heart!

The Apocalyptic Aspect of the Epistles

If we shift theological gears and focus on the epistles, the earliest NT writings, we’ll find a completely different theology altogether, one in which the coherence of Scripture revolves around the *end-times*! For example, in 2 Pet. 1.16–21, the eyewitness testimony of Jesus’ transfiguration in vv. 16-18 is not historical but rather a vision of the future. That’s why verse 19 concludes: “So we have the prophetic message more fully confirmed.” The same goes for the apocalyptic passage in 1 Pet. 1.10-11, which suggests an eschatological soteriology.

According to the principle of expositional constancy, if we compare the chronological time period or the timeline known as “the fullness of time” (τὸ πλήρωμα τοῦ χρόνου) in Gal. 4.4 to that of Eph. 1.9-10, we will come to realize that Christ’s birth, as recorded in the former, is in reference to the eschaton, not to a purported time period in Antiquity. The end-times incarnation of Christ in Gal. 4.4 is multiply and independently attested in Rev. 12.5, whose timeline is contemporaneous with the Great Tribulation and the apocalyptic events of the end-times!

Therefore, the church’s dogma that Jesus died in Antiquity appears to be a proof-text fallacy that is out of touch with the *teaching* of the epistles. For example, there are numerous passages in the epistles that place the timeline of Jesus’ life (i.e., his birth, death, and resurrection) in *eschatological* categories (e.g., 2 Thess. 2.1-3; Heb. 1.1-2; 9.26b; 1 Pet. 1.10-11, 20; Rev. 12.5; 19.10d).

Furthermore, if the canonical context demands that we coalesce the different Biblical texts as if we’re reading a single Book, then the overall “prophetic” message of Revelation must certainly play a significant exegetical role. Accordingly, the Book of Revelation places not only the timeline (12.5) but also the testimony to Jesus (19.10d) in “prophetic” categories.

The *apocalyptic theology* of the NT epistles is multiply attested in the Old Testament canon, which confirms the earthy, *end-time Messiah* of the epistolary literature (cf. Job 19.25; Isa. 2.19; Dan. 12.1-2; Zeph. 1.7-9, 15-18; Zech. 12.9-10)!

What About the Numerous NT References to the Revelation of Jesus: Are they Not References to a Second Coming?

A revelation by default means “a first-time” occurrence. In other words, it’s an event that is happening for the very first time. By definition, a “revelation” is never disclosed twice. If we examine the NT verses, which mention the future revelation of Christ, we will find that they are not referring to a second coming, a coming back, or a return, as is commonly thought, but rather to an initial appearance (see e.g. 1 Cor. 1.7; 16.22; 1 Thess. 2.19; 4.15; 2 Thess. 1.10; 2.1; Heb. 10.37; Jas. 5.7; 1 Pet. 1.7; 2 Pet. 1.16; 3.4; 1 Jn 2.28; Rev. 2.16; 22.20).

See my article: Why does the New Testament Refer to Christ’s Future Coming as a “Revelation”?

https://eli-kittim.tumblr.com/post/187927555567/why-does-the-new-testament-refer-to-christs

WHY DOES THE NEW TESTAMENT REFER TO CHRIST’S FUTURE COMING AS A “REVELATION”?
Eli of Kittim
By Eli Kittim It’s important to note the language that’s often used with regard to the future coming of Christ, namely, as the “revelation

Another objection to the second coming of Christ goes something like this. If God wants to accomplish something, he’ll get it done on the first attempt. Why the need for a second attempt? It would imply that Christ’s mission on earth was a total failure and that nothing so clearly indicates his unsuccessful earthly mission to restore God’s kingdom as his much anticipated return to set things right. In other words, the second coming implies that Jesus couldn’t get it done the first time. He has to come back to finish the job.

Visions of the Resurrection

Most credible scholars view the so-called resurrection of Christ not as a historical phenomenon but rather as a visionary experience. And this seems to be the *apocalyptic* message of the NT as well (cf. 2 Tim. 2.17-18; 2 Thess. 2.1-3). For example, Lk. 24.23 explicitly states that the women “had indeed seen a vision.” Lk. 24.31 reads: “he [Jesus] vanished from their sight.” And Lk. 24.37 admits they “thought that they were seeing a ghost.” Here are some of the statements that scholars have made about the resurrection, which do not necessarily disqualify them as believers:

The resurrection itself is not an event of

past history. All that historical criticism can

establish is that the first disciples came to

believe the resurrection (Rudolph Bultmann,

‘The New Testament and Mythology,’ in

Kerygma and Myth: A Theological Debate,

ed. Hans Werner Bartsch, trans. Reginald H.

Fuller [London: S.P.C.K, 1953-62], 38, 42).

When the evangelists spoke about the

resurrection of Jesus, they told stories

about apparitions or visions (John Dominic

Crossan, ‘A Long Way from Tipperary: A

Memoir’ [San Francisco:

HarperSanFransisco, 2000], 164-165).

At the heart of the Christian religion lies a

vision described in Greek by Paul as

ophehe——‘he was seen.’ And Paul himself,

who claims to have witnessed an

appearance asserted repeatedly ‘I have

seen the Lord.’ So Paul is the main source

of the thesis that a vision is the origin of the

belief in resurrection . . . (Gerd Lüdemann,

‘The Resurrection of Jesus: History,

Experience, Theology.’ Translated by John

Bowden. [London: SCM, 1994], 97, 100).

It is undisputable that some of the followers

of Jesus came to think that he had been

raised from the dead, and that something

had to have happened to make them think

so. Our earliest records are consistent on

this point, and I think they provide us with

the historically reliable information in one

key aspect: the disciples’ belief in the

resurrection was based on visionary

experiences. I should stress it was visions,

and nothing else, that led to the first

disciples to believe in the resurrection (Bart

D. Ehrman, ‘How Jesus Became God: The

Exaltation of a Jewish Preacher from

Galilee’ [New York: Harper One, 2014],

183-184).

Ehrman sides with the *visionary language* that Luke, Bultmann, Crossan, and Lüdemann use. British NT scholar, James Dunn also thought that Jesus was not resurrected in Antiquity but that Jesus probably meant he would be resurrected at the last judgment! Even NT textual critic Kurt Aland went so far as to question whether or not Jesus was a real person. In his book, “A History of Christianity” (Vol. 1, p. 106, emphasis added), he writes:

the real question arises . . . was there really

a Jesus? Can Jesus really have lived if the

writings of his closest companions are filled

with so little of his reality . . . so little in them

of the reality of the historical Jesus . . . .

When we observe this——assuming that the

writings about which we are speaking really

come from their alleged authors——it

almost then appears as if Jesus were a

mere PHANTOM . . .

Conclusion

This is not the proposal of a Mythicist, but of an *Ahistoricist.* In sharp contrast to mythicism, which attributes the Jesus-story solely to mythological causes, my *ahistoricism* ascribes it to future eschatology! Paradoxically, you can have a high view of Scripture, and even hold to a high Christology, and yet still reject the historicity of Jesus. In other words, you can completely repudiate historical Christianity without necessarily denying the Christian faith, the divinity of Jesus, eschatological salvation, or the authority of Scripture. In fact, this view seems to be more in line with the canonical context of the Bible than the classical one! This brief inquiry into the apocalyptic aspect of the NT has therefore provided a starting point and direction for subsequent studies.

Christianity preserved the apocalyptic tradition of Judaism and reevaluated it in light of its own messianic revelations. The NT refined this type of literature as it became the vehicle of its own prophetic and apocalyptic expressions. Apocalypticism, then, not historiography, is the essence of the NT, which is based on a foreknowledge of future events that is written in advance! It is therefore thought advisable to consider the collection of NT writings as strikingly futurist books.


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3 years ago
Academic Bias On The Web

Academic Bias on the Web

By Author Eli Kittim

——-

I recently submitted a version of the following post in the *Group for New Testament Studies* (on Facebook) but, regrettably, the administrators did not approve it. Yet, given the validity of the Greek exegesis, it certainly deserves serious academic consideration. This is indicative of academic discrimination based on their own personal biases.

——-

2 Principles of Biblical Hermeneutics Should Guide our Investigation

Two principles of Biblical hermeneutics should be considered foundational. Exegetes must interpret the implicit by the explicit and the narrative by the didactic. In practical terms, the *NT epistles* and other more *explicit* and *didactic* portions of Scripture must clarify the implicit meaning and significance of the gospel literature, which, by the way, is not biographical but *theological* in nature, as Bultmann, Crossan, Lüdemann, Licona, Crossley, Robert L. Thomas and F. David Farnell, Dennis MacDonald, Robert Gundry, and Thomas L. Brodie, among others, have clearly demonstrated!

——-

This *Greek exegesis,* translated straight from the text itself, challenges the classical Christian interpretation, which is primarily founded upon historical-fiction narratives. This *Greek exegesis* not only complements the Jewish messianic expectations but it also fits perfectly with the end-time messianic death & resurrection themes alluded to in the Old Testament (see e.g. Isa. 2.19; Dan. 12.1-2)! In short, both the Hebrew and Christian Scriptures seem to say the exact same thing, namely, that the Messiah will appear “once for all at the end of the age” (Heb. 9.26b)!

——-

*The Future Christ* Greek Exegesis

According to the New Testament’s explicit and didactic portions of Scripture, Christ is *born* when time reaches its fullness or completion, expressed in the apocalyptic phrase τὸ πλήρωμα τοῦ χρόνου:

ὅτε δὲ ἦλθεν τὸ πλήρωμα τοῦ χρόνου,

ἐξαπέστειλεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν υἱὸν αὐτοῦ,

γενόμενον ἐκ γυναικός (Gal. 4.4).

According to the principle of expositional constancy, the chronological time period known as “the fullness of time” (τὸ πλήρωμα τοῦ χρόνου) in Gal. 4.4 is defined in Eph. 1.9-10 as the consummation of the ages (cf. Heb. 9.26b NASB):

γνωρίσας ἡμῖν τὸ μυστήριον τοῦ θελήματος

αὐτοῦ, κατὰ τὴν εὐδοκίαν αὐτοῦ ἣν

προέθετο ἐν αὐτῷ εἰς οἰκονομίαν τοῦ

πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν,

ἀνακεφαλαιώσασθαι τὰ πάντα ἐν τῷ

Χριστῷ, τὰ ἐπὶ τοῖς οὐρανοῖς καὶ τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς

γῆς· ἐν αὐτῷ.

The fullness of time (τοῦ πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν) in Ephesians refers to the *summing up* (ανακεφαλαιώσασθαι) of all things in Christ, things in heaven and things on earth! Thus, according to Gal. 4.4, Christ is born during the consummation of the ages (i.e. in the end-times; cf. Lk 17.30; Heb. 1.2; Rev. 12.5; 19.10d; 22.7, 10, 18, 19)!

The initial appearance of Christ is also rendered as taking place “at the final point of time” in 1 Pet. 1.20 NJB:

προεγνωσμένου μὲν πρὸ καταβολῆς

κόσμου, φανερωθέντος δὲ ἐπ’ ἐσχάτου τῶν

χρόνων.

Further textual confirmation comes by way of Heb. 9.26b, which reads:

νυνὶ δὲ ἅπαξ ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων εἰς

ἀθέτησιν ἁμαρτίας διὰ τῆς θυσίας αὐτοῦ

πεφανέρωται.

NRSV translation:

“he has appeared once for all at the end of

the age to remove sin by the sacrifice of

himself.”

A historical-grammatical study of the phrase ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων demonstrates that it refers to “the end of the age” (i.e. the end of the world; cf. Mt. 13.39-40, 49; 24.3; 28.20; Dan. 12.4 LXX; see also G.W.H. Lampe [ed.], “A Patristic Greek Lexicon” [Oxford: Oxford U, 1961], p. 1340).

——-

Conclusion

The assumed historicity of Jesus needs to be revisited, given that his only visitation is set to occur at the end of the age! Accordingly, this exegesis argues that the epistles are the primary keys to unlocking the future timeline of Christ’s only visitation. To demonstrate the validity of this argument, we must get back to NT Greek in order to focus on questions of authorial intent. To simply dismiss, ignore, or disregard this exegesis is tantamount to academic dishonesty!

Most people, in fact, will not take the trouble in

finding out the truth, but are much more inclined

to accept the first story they hear.

(Thucydides, History of the Peloponnesian War)

——-

Response

I received the following Facebook notification a week or so after submitting a version of the aforementioned post in the Group for New Testament studies:

Your pending post was declined from

Group for New Testament Studies by an

admin. See their feedback.

When I clicked on it, the reason given for the rejection of the post was as follows:

Group Rules that were violated

2 Keep it Scholarly:

NT, early Christianity, & discussion of the

field ok. Posts that assume/attempt to

impose a Christian perspective will not be

approved & commenting in this way will

result in a warning & then removal.

So, I wrote back to them . . .

Open letter

——-

I have sent a copy of this letter to both administrators because I didn’t know who was responsible for dismissing my post.

——-

You declined my post, citing a violation of group rules in which one should not impose a Christian perspective. I will get to that in a moment.

——-

As for its scholarship, the exegesis is unquestionably precise & accurate! Incidentally, I’m proficient in New Testament Greek (I’m also a native Greek speaker).

——-

Now, as to your claim, that I supposedly imposed a Christian perspective, it is quite laughable and borders on the absurd. I not only am NOT imposing a “Christian” interpretation, but, as a matter of fact, I’m NOT imposing ANY interpretation whatsoever!

I’m merely TRANSLATING what the text is ACTUALLY SAYING about C H R I S T! I did NOT invent or “impose” the Greek phrase τὸ πλήρωμα τοῦ χρόνου in relation to Christ’s birth: the Greek text *actually* SAYS that (Gal. 4.4)!

I did not personally invent or “impose” an interpretation of the phrase τοῦ πληρώματος τῶν καιρῶν as a timeline referring to the consummation of the ages: the Greek text itself *actually* SAYS that in Eph. 1.10!

——-

Have you ever read about NT linguistics, such as the work of Stanley E. Porter? Have you ever studied any scholarly New Testament lexicons or dictionaries, such as the EDNT, BAGD, ANLEX, TDNT, LSJ? They would all validate and substantiate my translations. As I emphasized earlier, this is a question of translation, not interpretation, and certainly NOT “Christian interpretation,” as you erroneously deduced!

——-

I neither invented nor “imposed” a “Christian interpretation” on 1 Pet. 1.20. It is quite laughable to make such a claim. The text itself is referring to the “appearance” of Christ ἐπ’ ἐσχάτου τῶν χρόνων or “at the final point of time,” as the scholarly NJB itself translates it.

Similarly, I neither imposed, invented, nor interpreted the Greek expression ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων in Heb. 9.26b. It is in the Greek text itself, and it is in reference to Christ, as any reputable *textual scholar* would unequivocally concur. In fact, a concordance study demonstrates that the textual reference is to “the end of the world” (KJV), “the culmination of the ages” (NIV), “the consummation of the ages” (NASB), or “the end of the age” (NRSV), as all other scholarly translations indicate (cf. Mt. 13.39-40, 49; 24.3; 28.20; Dan. 12.4 LXX; see also G.W.H. Lampe [ed.], “A Patristic Greek Lexicon” [Oxford: Oxford U, 1961], p. 1340). By the way, Lampe’s Lexicon is considered to be a scholarly book of the highest order.

Once again, this is NOT an “interpretation,” and certainly NOT an imposition of a Christian perspective, but rather——**wait for it**——A _ G R E E K _ T R A N S L A T I O N! Therefore, your decision not to publish the post is completely bogus and misinformed!

Sorry about the capitals, but it needs to be highlighted, given that your commentary is not within scholarly and academic parameters!

——-

I really couldn’t care less what actions you take as a result of this letter. And I certainly lost all respect for your credibility and your group.

——-

I have never seen any academic commentary to equal this one for downright biased and unscrupulous disregard of evidence. It is tantamount to academic dishonesty!

——-


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3 years ago
The Quran Mirrors The Bible: Surah 3.55 Echoes Revelation 12.5

The Quran Mirrors the Bible: Surah 3.55 Echoes Revelation 12.5

By Author & Bible Researcher Eli Kittim 🎓

——-

Surah 3.55 (Quran)

Lo! Allah said: “O Isa (Jesus)! Verily, I shall

cause thee to die, and shall raise thee up

unto Me … unto the Day of Resurrection.

——-

Revelation 12.4-5 (Bible)

Then the dragon stood before the woman

who was about to bear a child, so that he

might devour her child as soon as it was

born. And she gave birth to a son [Jesus], a

male child, who is to rule all the nations

with a rod of iron. But her child was

snatched away and taken to God and to his

throne.

——-

Commentary

The reference to the “great red dragon, with seven heads and ten horns” (Rev. 12.3) indicates that this event is taking place in the end-times. That’s because the 10 horns are said to “make war on the Lamb, and the Lamb will conquer them” (Rev. 17.12-14) at the end of the age! So, the temporal juxtaposition of the “great red dragon” with the pregnant woman (Rev. 12.2) signifies that the dragon and the pregnant woman are contemporaries. In other words, they exist at the same point in time. The idea that “the dragon stood before the woman who was about to bear a child [Jesus], so that he might devour her child as soon as it was born” (Rev. 12.4) means that the dragon wanted to put the newborn to death. The sequence of events continues as follows (Rev. 12.5):

she gave birth to a son [Jesus], a male

child, who is to rule all the nations with a

rod of iron. But her child was snatched

away and taken to God and to his throne.

Curiously enough, the verse doesn’t deny that the newborn was killed. It only affirms that he was subsequently “snatched away” or raptured unto God. The Greek word ἡρπάσθη comes from ἁρπάζω (harpazó), which is the same word used in 1 Thess. 4.17 for the rapture! But this is also a reference to the resurrection of the dead, which occurs simultaneously with the rapture (see 1 Thess. 4.16-17). Incidentally, in this context, the term τέκνον or child seemingly refers to both a spiritual and a physical birth. Given the development of the passage, coupled with the said activities of the “son” (υἱόν)——i.e. dying, ascending to heaven, and so on——it’s quite obvious that, technically speaking, the child (Jesus) is not an infant. Thus, the biblical jargon suggests the initial physical appearance of Jesus on the world stage, who is spiritually born (or reborn) in God.

Revelation 12 clearly indicates that these are all end-time events. For example, cosmic “war broke out in heaven” (12.7). It’s also the time when Satan will be incarnated as the Antichrist & the kingdom of God “and the authority of his Messiah” will come into full view (Rev. 12.10). Further proof is given by the allusion to the Great Tribulation (Rev. 12.14), which lasts for 42 months or 3 and one half years (cf. Dan. 7.25; 12.7; Rev. 11.2; 13.5). Revelation 12.13-14 informs us that the dragon then persecuted the people of God——represented by the woman, the mother church, as it were——but they were protected for 3 and one half years:

[the dragon] pursued the woman who had

given birth to the male child [Jesus]. But the

woman was given the two wings of the

great eagle, so that she could fly from the

serpent into the wilderness, to her place

where she is nourished for a time, and

times, and half a time.

Conclusion

So what does it mean? Revelation 12 is basically telling us that the child Jesus is born in the end-times and dies soon thereafter. Then, the implication is that he is raised from the dead and “snatched away” into heaven. Since the rapture and the resurrection of the dead occur simultaneously, and since this event takes place in the end-times, it must happen during the so-called “Great day of Resurrection,” when all the dead who ever lived will come back to life (cf. Dan. 12.1-2; 1 Thess. 4.16-17; 1 Cor. 15.22-24)!

Surprisingly, that’s precisely what the Quran implies as well. Surah 3.55 seems to say that Jesus’ death, resurrection, and ascension will take place in the end-times, during the Day of Resurrection:

Lo! Allah said: “O Isa (Jesus)! Verily, I shall cause thee to die, and shall raise thee up unto Me … unto the Day of Resurrection.

Therefore, Surah 3.55 (Quran) seems to echo Revelation 12.5 (Bible).

——-


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2 years ago
French Translation Of Eli Kittims Article

French translation of Eli Kittim’s article

Traduction française de l'article d'Eli Kittim

——-

PREUVE QUE DANIEL 12.1 FAIT RÉFÉRENCE À UNE RÉSURRECTION D'ENTRE LES MORTS BASÉE SUR LA TRADUCTION ET L'EXEGÈSE DES LANGUES BIBLIQUES

Par l'auteur Eli Kittim

Daniel 12.1 se situe dans le contexte de la grande tribulation de la fin des temps !  Matthieu 24.21 en parle aussi comme le temps de la grande épreuve : καιρός θλίψεως (cf. Apocalypse 7.14).

Daniel Théodotion 12.1 LXX :

καὶ ἐν τῷ καιρῷ ἐκείνῳ ἀναστήσεται Μιχαηλ ὁ ἄρχων ὁ μέγας ὁ ἑστηκὼς ἐπὶ τοὺς υἱοὺς τοῦ λαοῦ σου καὶ ἔσται καιρὸς θλίψεως θλῖψις οἵα οὐ γέγονεν ἀφ’ οὗ γεγένηται ἔθνος ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἕως τοῦ καιροῦ ἐκείνου.

La Théodotion Daniel 12.1 de la Septante traduit le mot hébreu עָמַד (amad) par αναστήσεται, qui est dérivé de la racine du mot ανίστημι et signifie « se lèvera ».

Traduction:

À ce moment-là, Michel, le grand prince, le protecteur de ton peuple, se lèvera. Il y aura un temps d'angoisse, tel qu'il n'y en a jamais eu depuis que les nations ont vu le jour.

Mon affirmation selon laquelle le mot grec ἀναστήσεται ("se lèvera") fait référence à une résurrection d'entre les morts a été contestée par des critiques. Ma réponse est la suivante.

Le premier élément de preuve est le fait que Michel est mentionné pour la première fois comme celui qui « ressuscitera » (ἀναστήσεται ; Daniel Theodotion 12.1 LXX) avant la résurrection générale des morts (ἀναστήσονται ; l'ancien grec Daniel 12.2 LXX). Ici, il existe des preuves linguistiques solides que le mot ἀναστήσεται fait référence à une résurrection parce que dans le verset suivant (12.2) le même mot au pluriel (à savoir, ἀναστήσονται) est utilisé pour décrire la résurrection générale des morts ! En d'autres termes, si ce même mot signifie résurrection dans Daniel 12.2, alors il doit aussi nécessairement signifier résurrection dans Daniel 12.1 !

Le deuxième élément de preuve provient de la version grecque ancienne de Daniel de la Septante qui utilise le mot παρελεύσεται pour définir le mot hébreu עָמַד (amad), qui est traduit par « surgira ».

La version de la LXX de l'ancien grec Daniel 12.1 se lit comme suit :

καὶ κατὰ τὴν ὥραν ἐκείνην παρελεύσεται Μιχαηλ ὁ ἄγγελος ὁ μέγας ὁ ἑστηκὼς ἐπὶ τοὺς υἱοὺς τοῦ λαοῦ σου ἐκείνη ἡ ἡμέρα θλίψεως οἵα οὐκ ἐγενήθη ἀφ’ οὗ ἐγενήθησαν ἕως τῆς ἡμέρας ἐκείνης.

La version de la septante de Daniel en grec ancien démontre en outre que Daniel 12.1 décrit un thème de mort et de résurrection parce que le mot παρελεύσεται signifie « mourir » (mourir), indiquant ainsi le décès de ce grand prince au moment de la fin! Il plante le décor de sa résurrection alors que la forme dite « Theodotion Daniel » de la LXX comble les lacunes en utilisant le mot αναστήσεται, signifiant une résurrection corporelle, pour établir la période des derniers jours comme le temps pendant lequel cette figure princière sera ressuscitée d'entre les morts !


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2 years ago

I love that you practice epistemology, to analyse Christianity, and compare it to various religions, based on etymology, and ancient history, etc. I would say you are like a theological anthropologist of the literature. Some of the amateur historians and anthropologists in America are making the claim that Babylon is in America and that America experienced the mud floods with the ancient history oppressed. Have you ever heard that theory? Your perspective would be so interesting!

I appreciate the complements. Much appreciated! And that’s a good question. Thanks for that question.

Yes, I have heard the theory that the Biblical Babylon might be an eschatological reference to America, and that floods & hurricanes could be a form of God’s judgment. Personally, I don’t believe that tsunamis or hurricanes are caused by God as a form of judgment. God reserves his judgment for “Judgment Day,” otherwise known as “the Day of the Lord.” If you want to understand my view on Babylon more comprehensively, I invite you to peruse the following articles:

——-

1). The Tower of Babel: History or Prophecy❓

https://at.tumblr.com/eli-kittim/the-tower-of-babel-history-or-prophecy/yiojc2oes4qn

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2). Babel and Babylon Refer to the Same Place

https://at.tumblr.com/eli-kittim/babel-and-babylon-refer-to-the-same-place/yjyodq8popud


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2 years ago
The Exact Month And Year Of Jesus Birth Are Revealed In The Bible

The Exact Month and Year of Jesus’ Birth Are Revealed in the Bible

By Bible Researcher & Goodreads Author Eli Kittim 🎓

Matthew 1.17 tells us the year of Jesus’ birth

Astoundingly, the gospel of Matthew imparts a cryptic clue concerning the birth of Jesus that hardly anyone knows about. Specifically, the ancestry of Jesus, as recorded in the gospel of Matthew, is actually a mathematical riddle whose solution reveals the precise year of his birth! The key to solving this puzzle can be found in Chapter 1 and Verse 17. Notice that there is a constant repetition of 14 generations throughout the foregoing lineage. We also know from Scripture that a generation is equal to 70 years (Ps. 90.10). Matthew 1.17 reads as follows:

there were fourteen generations in all from

Abraham to David, fourteen from David to

the exile to Babylon, and fourteen from the

exile to the Messiah.

One final clue: the calculation does not begin from the time of Abraham but from the time of David who alone represents the Messiah! Do the math.

So, let’s work out the calculation. Matthew tells us that there were 14 generations from David to Babylon. Each generation is equal to 70 years. Thus, 14 x 70 = 980 years from David to Babylon. And there were 14 generations from the exile to the Messiah. Therefore, 14 x 70 = 980 years. So, from David to the exile are 980 years, and from the exile to the Messiah are another 980 years. Hence 980 (+) 980 = 1960, the year of the Messiah’s birth! Mind you, this is not a historical but rather an esoteric rendering, which contains a cryptic clue concerning the year of Jesus’ birth!

Luke 1.26 tells us the month of Jesus’ birth

The Bible is very clear and very simple when it comes to imparting cryptic and esoteric clues. We don’t need to use overly technical, heavy-handed, and convoluted mathematical equations. For instance, in an attempt to figure out the month of Jesus’ birth, some scholars begin by applying the months pertaining to the 24 courses of the Levitical priests that rotate to minister in the Tabernacle (based on John the Baptist’s father in Luke 1.5, “Zechariah, of the division of Abijah”), and then, after figuring out the date of Elizabeth’s conception, they add 6 months to determine the timing of Mary’s conception (Luke 1.26, 36), and so on and so forth. But this calculation is far too complex and very confusing. By contrast, Luke’s gospel makes it very, very simple and very clear. Luke 1.26-27 reads thusly:

Now in the sixth month the angel Gabriel

was sent from God to a city in Galilee

named Nazareth, to a virgin betrothed to a

man whose name was Joseph, of the

descendants of David; and the virgin’s

name was Mary.

In Luke 1.26, the angel was sent “in the sixth month.” That’s the clue. That’s the key! Simple and to the point. The sixth month (in the Jewish religious calendar) is called Elul. In the Gregorian calendar it falls on the month of August. Thus, that’s the month that the Messiah is born!

Conclusion

In chapter 1 verse 17, Matthews’ genealogy is theological, not historical. That’s because “historically” it doesn’t make any sense. For example, we know that the Babylonian exile took place sometime around 586 BCE. If David lived approximately 980 years earlier, that would put David’s timeline at around 1566 BCE, which is historically inaccurate. David lived around 1,000 BCE. Similarly, 980 years after the Babylonian exile would put Jesus’ birth at around 394 CE (the fourth century), making him a contemporary of Jerome. So Matthew’s genealogy is obviously crypto-theological, not historical. It is meant to impart a mathematical riddle whose solution reveals the precise year of the Messiah’s birth!

But you may object and say, wait a minute. I thought Jesus was born in 4 BCE and died sometime around 30 CE, right? Well, not exactly. The gospels are theological, not historical, documents. Scholars know that the early extra-biblical references to Jesus by people like Josephus and Tacitus were tampered with (interpolations). What is more, there are no eyewitnesses and no first-hand accounts of Jesus. There are also many literary discrepancies in the New Testament. For example, the earliest New Testament writings (the Pauline letters) don’t contain the embellishments and legends we find in the later writings (the gospels). Not to mention the historical discrepancies as to whether Jesus was supposedly born in 4 BCE (Matthew) or 6 CE (Luke).

But, more importantly, the New Testament epistles themselves tell us that Jesus will actually be born during the consummation of the ages, or “in the fullness of time” (Gal. 4.4; Eph. 1.9-10), and that he will be “revealed [for the very first time] at the final point of time” (1 Pet. 1.20 NJB). Moreover, Hebrews 1.2 tells us that Jesus will speak to humankind in the “last days,” while Rev. 12.5 confirms that Jesus will be born in the end-times as a contemporary of the last empire on earth (the so-called “7-headed dragon with 10 horns”), during a time period just prior to *the great tribulation* that lasts 3 and a half years (see Rev. 12.5-6, 13-14). Similarly, Isaiah 2.19 says that the Lord rises (or resurrects) “to terrify the earth.” In other words, there’s no 2,000 year gap between Jesus’ resurrection and judgment day! Rather, they’re contemporaneous events. And Daniel 12.1-2 prophesies (in the Greek Septuagint) about a princely figure who will die and resurrect in the last days, just prior to the *general resurrection* of the dead.

So, there are many, many references to the Messiah’s one-and-only visitation in the end-times (e.g. Job 19.25; Zeph. 1.8—9, 15—18; Zech. 12.9—10; Lk. 17.30; Acts 2.17—21; 1 Cor. 1.7; Phil. 1.6; Col. 3.4; 1 Thess. 1.10; 2 Thess. 1.7; 2.1—3; 1 Tim. 6.14; 2 Tim. 4.1; Titus 2.13; 1 Pet. 1.13; 5.1; 1 Jn. 2.28; Rev. 19.10d)! But probably the most important and explicit reference to Jesus’ *atonement* and *death* at the end of days comes from Hebrews 9.26b (KJV), which says categorically and unequivocally that the timeline of this event is in the end-times:

once in the end of the world hath he [Jesus]

appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice

[or death] of himself.

So, according to Hebrews 9.26b, Jesus’ death takes place “in the end of the world,” not 2,000 years ago! Therefore, the one-and-only visitation of Jesus in the end-times is well-supported and multiply attested!

——-

For further scholarly details (from the original Greek) on the future incarnation of Christ, watch the following (short) video: ⬇️

A Biblical Greek Translation of Hebrews 9:26 that Changes Everything We Thought We Knew About Jesus

——-

I just spent some time giving you the backstory concerning the Jesus prophecy. Now that you understand the biblical timeline and context of Jesus’ one-and-only coming, let’s get back to what we were talking about earlier. So, in conclusion, Matthew 1.17 reveals the year of the Messiah’s birth (1960)! Similarly, Luke 1.26 reveals the month that the Messiah is born (in August)! Thus, Jesus the Messiah has already been born and will soon appear on the world stage. That’s precisely why the countdown to Armageddon began after the restoration of Israel in 1948. The rebirth of Israel in 1948 (Ezek. 38.8) marks a turning point in apocalyptic expectations in that modern Israel becomes the preeminent sign as regards the end of days (cf. Mt. 24.32-34; Acts 1.6). So the idea that the Messiah would be born 12 years after the rebirth of modern Israel coincides with the 70 weeks prophecy of Daniel. Accordingly, the so-called *restoration* of “Jerusalem, until Messiah the Prince” (Dan. 9.25), in the 70 weeks of Daniel, also began during this same time period! In other words, the 70 weeks prophecy of Daniel also prophesies of a coming messiah after the restoration of Israel. If you do the work of modern critical scholarship, it all fits like a glove. So, are we living in the last days? You better believe it!

——-

For further details on the 70 weeks of Daniel, see the following article: ⬇️

The Seventy Weeks of Daniel 9: A Critique of Questionable Interpretations

The Seventy Weeks of Daniel 9: A Critique of Questionable Interpretations
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By Author Eli Kittim ——- Christological readings The Prophecy of Seventy Weeks is given by the angel Gabriel and inscripturated in the Boo

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8 years ago

SmallComic: “The End of Small”

This comic is based on a true story. 

Yes, that’s it Smallies. Cristobal Colon, the artist of the duo, is incapacitated, and Peter Wyatt, the writer, is not that good at drawing. The only solution left is to stop making cute comics :’( :’( :’(

We had a good run, pals. We give all of your tumblerers big hugs…

But look, the truth is, this isn’t the last you’ve heard from Cristobal and Peter. We’re launching a new animation website about a Meme that’s caught in a dream soon.  

Get ready for that.

In the mean time Cristobal has an instagram and Peter has a website.  Message us if ya’ll wanna get added to our monthly newsletter in case you miss our huggies.  

We may change the name of dis here blog and start posting meme dreams.  Or maybe some Christmas Cards in the coming weeks.   So keep a look out.  

“See you, space smallies…”

;)

smallcomic - SC
smallcomic - SC

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1 year ago
Quick Outer Wilds Themed Poster Design About The Whole "societal Collapse" Thing

Quick Outer Wilds themed poster design about the whole "societal collapse" thing


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5 months ago
I Used To Post On Here For A Story That I Was Writing Called Following Stars And Only Took A Break Because

I used to post on here for a story that I was writing called Following Stars and only took a break because it’s a spiritual driven story and depression hit me in the soul. I do want to get back to this story cuz Una and the other characters are super fun to work with…plus it takes place during the Rapture/Ragnarok/ all cultural end times so a post spiritual apocalyptic story :3


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5 months ago
I Used To Post On Here For A Story That I Was Writing Called Following Stars And Only Took A Break Because

I used to post on here for a story that I was writing called Following Stars and only took a break because it’s a spiritual driven story and depression hit me in the soul. I do want to get back to this story cuz Una and the other characters are super fun to work with…plus it takes place during the Rapture/Ragnarok/ all cultural end times so a post spiritual apocalyptic story :3


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2 years ago

I just wanted to take a minute to ask you all to surrender to Jesus. I’m not trying to be pushy, but I believe I’m called to invite you to heaven. We have all messed up and done bad things, and that keeps us from God. He is loving, but he is also just, and must punish sin. But,He loves you so much that would gave his life for you on the cross and make a way for you to be forgiven All you have to do is believe and trust in his sacrifice to save you from your sin. He will transform your life and make it more abundant and free. Also, Jesus is coming back one day, and we don’t know when. I believe that all believers will be taken to heaven in an event called the rapture. Then, God will judge humanity and trust me, you don’t want to be here for it. Seven years of pure hell on earth. Famine, war, diseases, and to top it off, an oppressive one world order that makes you comply or die. Also, you never know when you could die, your next breath isn’t promised. And, trust me, actual hell is even worse. A whole eternity of pure torture and separation from God. I don’t want you to have to go there, God doesn’t want you to go there, so much so that he made a way of salvation So please, trust Jesus today if you haven’t already and make him Lord of your life


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1 year ago

Wrapping a towel around myself, feeling like a Greek goddess.

Shuffling around in my robe, embodying the mannerisms of a curmudgeonly Victorian man.

Screeching into the void and waking ancient horrors, becoming the herald of the end times that I am.


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